






























Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
NR507 Midterm Edapt Review (Weeks 1-3) Questions and Answers.pdf
Typology: Exams
1 / 38
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!































Question 1 Choose the interstitial lung diseases that are the most diagnosed:
Lupus Radiation pneumonitis Pneumoconioses Acute interstitial pneumonia Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
Correct Answer Radiation pneumonitis Pneumoconioses Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
Question 2 Hives (urticaria) are an example of a:
Correct Answer Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 3 Anaphylaxis is a
hypersensitivity reaction. Correct Answer type 1
Question 4
Allergic contact dermatitis is an example of
hypersensitivity reaction.
Correct Answer
type 4
Question 5
Type 2 (Cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by:
Correct Answer
IgG or IgM.
Question 6
Which of the following are considered the "first responders" of the innate immune system?
Correct Answer
Neutrophils.
Question 7
Type I (Mechanism, Example, Pathology)
Correct Answer
IgE action on mast cells Hay fever Mast cell degranulation results in an inflammatory response
Question 12
Which of the following is the underlying pathology for hay fever?
Correct Answer
Mast cell degranulation.
Question 13
The diagnosis for an individual who presents to the office with sudden swollen lips and eyes, shortness of breath and throat tightness after a bee sting is:
Correct Answer
Anaphylaxis.
Question 14
Which of the following assessment findings would be expected in a patient who presents with urticaria?
Correct Answer
Eosinophilia.
Question 15
An example of a secondary immunodeficiency is:
Correct Answer
Pneumocystis Carinii.
Question 16
__________ is a predominant cause of secondary immune deficiencies worldwide.
Correct Answer
Malnutrition
Question 17
An example of a primary immunodeficiency is:
Correct Answer
Chronic Granulomatous Disease.
Question 18
Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
Correct Answer
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).
Question 19
Examples: Primary Immunodeficiencies
Correct Answer
Chronic granulomatous Disease of Childhood, DiGeorge Syndrome, Familial Mediterranean fever, Job Syndrome, Common Variable Immunodeficiency
Question 20
Examples: Secondary Immunodeficiencies
Correct Answer
Human Immunodeficiency Virus, Pneumocystis Carinii, Pneumonia, Sinus infection, Lung cancer
Question 21
T/F primary immunodeficiency: Are less common and occur due to a defect on the development of the immune system.
Correct Answer
true
Question 27
A renal disease most often associated with autoimmunity is:
Correct Answer
Glomerulonephritis.
Question 28
The major immune system change associated with Sjogren's Syndrome is:
Correct Answer
Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against apoptotic cells.
Question 29
Which of the following can depress a person's normal immune function? Exercise, psychological stress, HTN, high fiber diet
Correct Answer
psych stress
Question 30
t/f The presenting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disease is similar across all autoimmune diseases.
Correct Answer
false
Question 31
Which of the following assessment findings would support a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? -Swollen metacarpophalangeal joints. -A butterfly rash across the facial cheeks. -Inflammation in the salivary and lacrimal glands. -Muscle weakness and ataxia.
Correct Answer
Swollen metacarpophalangeal joints.
Question 32
t/f The presence of a low number of autoantibodies is an indicator that the individual will develop an autoimmune disease.
Correct Answer
false
Question 33
t/f The following immune components can be involved in autoimmune diseases: T- Cells, B-cells and autoantibodies.
Correct Answer
true
Question 34
Which of the following indices measures the average size of red blood cells? -Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV). -Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC). -Hemoglobin (Hb). -Reticulocyte count.
Correct Answer
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV).
Question 35
Anemia can be caused from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) -Excessive blood loss. -Increased red blood cell destruction. -Impaired red blood cell production.
Correct Answer
all the above
Question 40
t/f Identification of the type of anemia involves an examination of size of the RBC only.
Correct Answer
false
Question 41
Which of the following would normocytic-normochromic indicate?
Correct Answer
The cell is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level
Question 42
The treatment of iron deficiency anemia includes:
Correct Answer
iron supplementation
Question 43
Which of the following anemias can be categorized as microcytic-hypochromic? (Select all that apply.) Sideroblastic anemia. Thalassemia anemia. Iron deficiency anemia.
Correct Answer
all the above
Question 44
The most common type of anemia is
Correct Answer
Iron deficiency anemia
Question 45
Which of the following conditions could result in iron deficiency anemia?
Reduced intake of Vitamin C. Increased absorption of iron-containing foods. Excessive bleeding. Reduced absorption of Vitamin B-12.
Correct Answer
excessive bleeding
Question 46
Which of the following are iron-rich foods?
Lima beans. Meat. Spinach.
Correct Answer
all the above
Question 47
t/f Although less common, transferrin deficiencies and mitochondrial defects can lead to iron deficiency anemia.
Correct Answer
true
Question 48
A transferrin deficiency will most likely result in:
Correct Answer
Iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 54
The ________________ (MCHC, Reticulocyte count, Serum B-12, MCV) lab values will be normal in a patient in the early stages of pernicious anemia.
Correct Answer
MCHC
Question 55
Which of the following lab values is normal or elevated for the patient with folate deficiency?
Reticulocyte count Folate Ferritin MCV
Correct Answer
Reticulocyte count
Question 56
Which of the following will be elevated in a patient with pernicious anemia?
Correct Answer
MCV
Question 57
In a patient with pernicious anemia, which of the following lab values can be normal or low?
Correct Answer
folate
Question 58
An individual who has received an incorrect blood transfusion will exhibit signs of:
Correct Answer
Hemolytic anemia.
Question 59
Aplastic anemia can be caused by:
Correct Answer
hepatitis
Question 60
In hemolytic anemia, the destruction of lysis of RBCs is due to:
Correct Answer
-Enzymes or toxins produced by an infectious agent.
-Chemical release medication by one’s immune system.
-Effects of drugs.
-all of the above, they will all cause lysis of RBCs
Question 61
t/f Acute blood loss of anemia is usually associated with acute GI bleeding and labor and delivery complications.
Correct Answer
true
Question 62
_______ lab values are normal for hemolytic anemia. (MCV or Reticulocyte count)
Correct Answer
MCV
Question 67
Which of the following statements are correct regarding thalassemia?
-May have many possible genetic mutations. -Involves a double amino acid change on the beta chain. -Maintains effective erythropoiesis. -Is characterized by acute and painful episodes.
Correct Answer
May have many possible genetic mutations.
Question 68
t/f Cells that contain abnormal types of hemoglobin are more susceptible to infection by the parasite that causes malaria
Correct Answer
false (Rationale: Cells that contain abnormal types of hemoglobin are more resistant to infection by the parasite that causes malaria.)
Question 69
t/f There are four genes involved in encoding synthesis of the alpha protein chains for Hb and are located on chromosome number 16.
Correct Answer
true
Question 70
t/f The pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia involves a single amino-acid change on the beta-chain.
Correct Answer
true
Question 71
Sickle-cell anemia is an:
Immunodeficiency disorder. Idiopathic in blood disorder. Autosomal dominant genetic disorder. Autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Correct Answer
Autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Question 72
t/f The patient with thalassemia is at high risk for stroke.
Correct Answer
false (Stroke risk is high in patients with sickle cell anemia rather than thalassemia.)
Question 73
t/f Cells that contain abnormal types of hemoglobin are more susceptible to infection by the parasite that causes malaria.
Correct Answer
false
Question 74
Thalassemia is similar to sickle cell anemia in that the individual with thalassemia:
-Inherits an abnormal Hb gene from the mother only -Inherits an abnormal Hb gene from the father only -Inherits an abnormal Hb gene from both parents -Inherits an abnormal Hb gene from one parent
Correct Answer
Inherits an abnormal Hb gene from both parents
Question 78
Coronary artery disease (CAD) is mainly the result of:
Correct Answer
Longstanding atherosclerosis.
Question 79
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)?
Menopause. Age. Obesity. Family history.
Correct Answer
obesity
Question 80
t/f In Coronary Artery Disease (CAD), pumping ability of the heart can be impaired due to the deprivation of oxygen.
Correct Answer
true
Question 81
modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD)
Correct Answer
Dyslipidemia Diabetes Mellitus Obesity Smoking Hypertension Sedentary Lifestyle
Question 82
nonmodifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD)
Correct Answer
age Male Family History Menopause
Question 83
Hypertension has its most immediate effect on:
Correct Answer
afterload
Question 84
Which of the following conditions can decrease preload?
Fever. Fluid overload. Pain. Hemorrhage.
Correct Answer
hemorrhage
Question 85
The most common cause of right-sided heart failure is
Myocardial infarction. (MI) Tricuspid valve damage. Right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary hypertension.
Correct Answer
pulmonary HTN