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NSG 1540 Pharmacotherapeutics Midterm
Practice Exam Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2025|2026 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
- The nurse knows that the study of how drugs move through the body is called a. Pharmacodynamics b. Pharmacokinetics c. Pharmacogenomics d. Pharmacotherapeutics Rationale: Pharmacokinetics involves absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs.
- The process by which a drug is broken down into inactive forms is known as a. Absorption b. Distribution
c. Metabolism d. Excretion Rationale: Metabolism is the biotransformation of a drug into metabolites, often in the liver.
- The primary site of drug excretion is the a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Skin Rationale: Most drugs are excreted through the kidneys via urine.
- The nurse recognizes that the half-life of a drug refers to a. The total duration of drug effect b. The time required for 50% of the drug to be eliminated c. The onset of drug action d. The peak plasma concentration Rationale: Half-life determines how long it takes for plasma concentration to decrease by half.
- A medication that produces a response opposite to that intended is classified as a. Synergistic b. Additive c. Idiosyncratic d. Antagonistic
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics explains how a drug acts on the body’s receptors.
- A patient taking two drugs with similar effects experiences an increased effect. This is known as a a. Synergistic effect b. Antagonistic effect c. Potentiation d. Tolerance Rationale: Synergistic effects occur when combined drugs produce greater effects than alone.
- The nurse knows that the term “agonist” refers to a drug that a. Activates a receptor to produce a response b. Blocks a receptor c. Prevents metabolism d. Competes with an antagonist Rationale: Agonists bind to receptors and mimic the action of natural substances.
- The nurse identifies that the most rapid drug absorption occurs with a. Oral route b. Rectal route c. Intravenous route d. Subcutaneous route
Rationale: IV administration bypasses absorption barriers, delivering drugs directly into circulation.
- The nurse giving a drug sublingually understands that this route a. Is affected by first-pass metabolism b. Bypasses the liver c. Is slower than oral administration d. Is ideal for large doses Rationale: Sublingual absorption enters systemic circulation directly, avoiding the first-pass effect.
- A drug with a narrow therapeutic index requires a. No monitoring b. Close monitoring of blood levels c. Once-daily dosing d. Food for absorption Rationale: Narrow therapeutic index drugs have a small margin between effective and toxic doses.
- When administering a medication, the nurse checks the "Five Rights" which include a. Right route, right cost, right patient, right expiration, right storage b. Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time c. Right order, right documentation, right doctor, right frequency, right label
- The nurse administering digoxin must monitor a. Apical pulse b. Blood sugar c. Respirations d. Temperature Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; apical pulse should be checked before administration.
- The nurse understands that pharmacogenomics focuses on a. Genetic influences on drug response b. Drug interactions c. Body composition d. Lifestyle factors Rationale: Pharmacogenomics studies how genetics affect drug metabolism and effectiveness.
- Which laboratory value is most important to check before administering nephrotoxic drugs? a. ALT b. AST c. Creatinine d. Platelets Rationale: Creatinine levels indicate kidney function, crucial for nephrotoxic medications.
- The nurse recognizes that the loading dose of a medication is given to a. Reduce side effects b. Achieve a rapid therapeutic level c. Maintain steady state d. Prevent tolerance Rationale: A loading dose quickly reaches therapeutic levels before maintenance doses.
- When administering an oral medication, the nurse should avoid crushing a. Enteric-coated tablets b. Chewable tablets c. Liquid capsules d. Sublingual tablets Rationale: Crushing enteric-coated drugs destroys protective coating and alters absorption.
- A nurse observes a red man syndrome reaction during vancomycin infusion. The nurse should a. Stop the infusion immediately b. Administer epinephrine c. Slow the infusion rate d. Continue as ordered
- The nurse knows that an antagonist a. Blocks receptor sites b. Stimulates receptors c. Enhances agonist effects d. Increases absorption Rationale: Antagonists bind receptors but prevent activation.
- A patient on warfarin should avoid a. Potassium-rich foods b. Calcium c. Vitamin K–rich foods d. Sodium Rationale: Vitamin K reduces warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
- The nurse recognizes that a black box warning indicates a. Serious or life-threatening risks b. Non-serious side effects c. FDA approval d. Expiration risk Rationale: Black box warnings alert providers to severe potential effects.
- The nurse knows that grapefruit juice can a. Inhibit drug metabolism b. Increase absorption c. Increase excretion
d. Enhance distribution Rationale: Grapefruit inhibits CYP450 enzymes, increasing drug toxicity risk.
- An important nursing intervention for a patient on diuretics is a. Monitor electrolyte levels b. Restrict fluids c. Increase potassium intake blindly d. Give at bedtime Rationale: Diuretics alter electrolytes; monitoring is essential.
- When giving insulin, the nurse must a. Shake the vial vigorously b. Mix long-acting with short-acting c. Rotate injection sites d. Hold dose if glucose is normal Rationale: Rotating sites prevents lipodystrophy.
- A patient develops urticaria after taking penicillin. The nurse suspects a. Allergic reaction b. Drug tolerance c. Toxicity d. Idiosyncratic effect Rationale: Hives are classic signs of an allergic reaction.
c. Double dose if missed d. Take with antacids Rationale: Full course prevents resistance and relapse.
- For a patient on digoxin, hypokalemia a. Increases risk of toxicity b. Reduces effectiveness c. Has no effect d. Increases excretion Rationale: Low potassium enhances digoxin binding and toxicity.
- When administering medications via NG tube, the nurse should a. Flush before and after administration b. Mix all drugs together c. Use enteric-coated forms d. Skip water flush Rationale: Flushing prevents tube blockage and ensures drug delivery.
- The nurse checks peak levels to a. Prevent toxicity b. Assess kidney function c. Determine baseline d. Check adherence Rationale: Peak levels indicate highest drug concentration, preventing overdose.
- A nurse administering IM injections should choose a. 25G, ½ inch b. 22G, 1½ inch c. 30G, ½ inch d. 18G, 3 inch Rationale: IM injections require longer, thicker needles for muscle penetration.
- The nurse should never crush a. Extended-release tablets b. Scored tablets c. Sublingual tablets d. Powdered forms Rationale: Crushing extended-release drugs destroys controlled release.
- A patient reports nausea after taking codeine. This is considered a. Side effect b. Adverse reaction c. Toxicity d. Allergy Rationale: Nausea is a common predictable side effect.
- When documenting medication administration, the nurse must record a. Drug, dose, route, time, and signature
c. Apply over wounds d. Use multiple patches Rationale: Proper application ensures steady absorption.
- A patient receiving aminoglycosides should have which monitored? a. Blood glucose b. Renal function and hearing c. Liver enzymes d. Vision Rationale: Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic and ototoxic.
- The nurse administering subcutaneous heparin should a. Avoid massaging the site b. Aspirate before injection c. Inject into muscle d. Use same site repeatedly Rationale: Massaging increases bleeding; sites should rotate.
- The nurse understands that the primary goal of pharmacotherapeutics is a. Achieving the desired therapeutic effect with minimal harm b. Maximizing drug absorption c. Increasing metabolism d. Ensuring quick elimination
Rationale: Pharmacotherapeutics aims for safe, effective, individualized therapy.
- A nurse administering a narcotic should always a. Count and document controlled substances b. Store with over-the-counter drugs c. Share login for narcotic cabinet d. Skip wasting process Rationale: Controlled substances require strict counting and documentation to prevent misuse.
- The nurse understands that a teratogenic drug a. Can cause fetal malformations b. Affects kidney function c. Causes addiction d. Leads to tolerance Rationale: Teratogenic drugs harm fetal development during pregnancy.
- The nurse recognizes that medication errors most commonly occur during a. Dispensing b. Administration c. Documentation d. Disposal
Rationale: Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation or overdose.
- Before giving a loop diuretic like furosemide, the nurse should check a. Potassium level b. Glucose c. Calcium d. Liver enzymes Rationale: Loop diuretics can cause hypokalemia, requiring monitoring.
- A nurse gives a drug and the patient develops swelling of the face and tongue. This is a. Angioedema b. Rash c. Tolerance d. Idiosyncrasy Rationale: Angioedema is a severe allergic reaction needing immediate intervention.
- The nurse knows that the main purpose of a medication reconciliation is to a. Prevent medication errors during transitions of care b. Record allergies c. Refill prescriptions
d. Check compliance Rationale: Reconciliation ensures continuity and safety when patients move between settings.
- The nurse should question a prescription for tetracycline in a child because it a. Stains teeth b. Causes hyperactivity c. Causes constipation d. Raises potassium Rationale: Tetracyclines deposit in growing bones/teeth causing discoloration.
- A patient taking corticosteroids should be monitored for a. Increased blood glucose b. Low calcium c. Dehydration d. Bradycardia Rationale: Corticosteroids raise blood glucose; monitor for hyperglycemia.
- The nurse knows that a prodrug is a. Inactive until metabolized b. Active upon ingestion c. Not absorbed d. Excreted unchanged
