NUR 641E - Midterm Exam Study Guide., Exams of Nursing

NUR 641E - Midterm Exam Study Guide.

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NUR 641E - Midterm Exam Study Guide.
**Q1. What is the primary difference between Pharmacokinetics and
Pharmacodynamics?**
- **Answer:** Pharmacokinetics is "what the body does to the drug"
(Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion), while
Pharmacodynamics is "what the drug does to the body" (receptor
binding and clinical effects) .
**Q2. A patient with liver failure is prescribed a prodrug. Why might
this medication be ineffective?**
- **Answer:** Prodrugs require hepatic metabolism (often via
Cytochrome P450) to convert them into their active form. Liver failure
reduces this conversion, leading to therapeutic failure .
- **Rationale:** Examples of prodrugs include Clopidogrel (Plavix) and
Codeine. If the liver cannot metabolize them, the patient does not
receive the therapeutic benefit.
**Q3. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect
entirely, resulting in 100% bioavailability?**
- **Answer:** Intravenous (IV) administration .
- **Rationale:** The first-pass effect occurs when drugs are absorbed
from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic
circulation. IV administration places the drug directly into the blood,
bypassing the gut and liver.
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NUR 641E - Midterm Exam Study Guide.

Q1. What is the primary difference between Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics?

  • Answer: Pharmacokinetics is "what the body does to the drug" (Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion), while Pharmacodynamics is "what the drug does to the body" (receptor binding and clinical effects). Q2. A patient with liver failure is prescribed a prodrug. Why might this medication be ineffective?
  • Answer: Prodrugs require hepatic metabolism (often via Cytochrome P450) to convert them into their active form. Liver failure reduces this conversion, leading to therapeutic failure.
  • Rationale: Examples of prodrugs include Clopidogrel (Plavix) and Codeine. If the liver cannot metabolize them, the patient does not receive the therapeutic benefit. Q3. Which route of administration bypasses the first-pass effect entirely, resulting in 100% bioavailability?
  • Answer: Intravenous (IV) administration.
  • Rationale: The first-pass effect occurs when drugs are absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation. IV administration places the drug directly into the blood, bypassing the gut and liver.

Q4. How many half-lives does it take for a drug to reach steady state?

  • Answer: Approximately 4 to 5 half-lives.
  • Rationale: Steady state is achieved when the rate of drug administration equals the rate of drug elimination. Regardless of dose, it takes this consistent timeframe to reach equilibrium. Q5. A patient is taking Warfarin and starts taking Omeprazole (a CYP450 inhibitor). What is the potential interaction?
  • Answer: Increased Warfarin levels and risk of bleeding.
  • Rationale: Omeprazole inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes (specifically CYP2C19) that metabolize Warfarin. Inhibition leads to decreased metabolism and higher drug concentrations. Q6. What defines a drug with Zero-Order kinetics?
  • Answer: The drug is eliminated at a constant rate per unit time, regardless of concentration (e.g., Phenytoin, Alcohol, Aspirin in high doses). Cardiovascular System (Heart Failure, Hypertension, Anticoagulation) Q7. Which laboratory finding places a patient taking Digoxin at the highest risk for toxicity?
  • Answer: Hypokalemia (low potassium).

Q11. A patient presents with a "machine-like" murmur and bounding pulses. The nurse suspects Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA). Which medication is used to close the ductus pharmacologically?

  • Answer: Indomethacin (an NSAID).
  • Rationale: Prostaglandins keep the PDA open. Indomethacin inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, causing the ductus to constrict and close. Q12. Why are Nitrates (e.g., Nitroglycerin) contraindicated with PDE- 5 inhibitors (e.g., Sildenafil/Viagra)?
  • Answer: Combined use causes profound, life-threatening hypotension.
  • Rationale: Both nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors cause vasodilation. Nitrates work via cGMP; PDE-5 inhibitors prevent the breakdown of cGMP. Using them together causes an excessive drop in blood pressure. Q13. A patient is prescribed Amiodarone for arrhythmias. What specific organ toxicity must the nurse monitor for?
  • Answer: Pulmonary toxicity (fibrosis) and thyroid dysfunction.
  • Rationale: Amiodarone contains high levels of iodine. It can cause "blue man syndrome" (skin deposits), but the most dangerous adverse effects are pulmonary fibrosis and hyper/hypothyroidism.

Q14. Which anticoagulant is a direct thrombin (Factor IIa) inhibitor with the antidote Idarucizumab?

  • Answer: Dabigatran (Pradaxa). Q15. A patient with heart failure is taking Furosemide (Lasix). The nurse notes the patient is confused and has muscle cramps. What electrolyte imbalance is most likely?
  • Answer: Hypokalemia (low potassium).
  • Rationale: Loop diuretics block sodium/potassium/chloride reabsorption in the Loop of Henle, causing significant potassium wasting in the urine. Hematology & Immunology Q16. A newborn is 3 months old and develops an infection. The mother had immunity to this infection. Why did the infant get sick despite passive immunity from the mother?
  • Answer: Maternal antibodies (IgG) wane after 3-6 months, and the infant is not yet producing adequate amounts of their own antibodies.
  • Rationale: The "physiologic gap" occurs between 3-6 months when maternal IgG protection fades and infant IgM/IgG production is insufficient.

Q22. A patient with mild persistent asthma requires a daily medication to prevent symptoms. Which medication is preferred for long-term control?

  • Answer: Inhaled Corticosteroids (e.g., Fluticasone).
  • Rationale: Asthma is an inflammatory disease. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids are the cornerstone of controller therapy to reduce airway hyperresponsiveness. Q23. To prevent oral thrush, what instruction must be given to a patient using an inhaled corticosteroid?
  • Answer: Rinse the mouth with water (and spit, not swallow) after each use. Q24. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse finds them lethargic. What is the likely cause?
  • Answer: Loss of hypoxic drive leading to CO2 narcosis.
  • Rationale: High oxygen flow suppresses the primary drive to breathe in severe COPD patients (hypoxic drive), causing PaCO2 to rise to dangerous, sedating levels. Q25. An infant is born prematurely and develops severe respiratory distress. The pathophysiology is linked to a lack of what substance?
  • Answer: Surfactant (Respiratory Distress Syndrome).

Q26. Which combination inhaler contains a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) and a corticosteroid?

  • Answer: Advair (Fluticasone/Salmeterol). Gastrointestinal & Endocrine Q27. A diabetic patient checks their blood glucose at 3:00 AM and finds it low (50 mg/dL), but at 8:00 AM it is high (250 mg/dL). What phenomenon is occurring?
  • Answer: The Somogyi Effect.
  • Rationale: The Somogyi Effect is rebound hyperglycemia following untreated hypoglycemia. The body releases counter- regulatory hormones (cortisol, glucagon) in response to the low, driving the morning glucose high. Treatment is reducing insulin or adding a bedtime snack. Q28. In contrast to the Somogyi Effect, what is the Dawn Phenomenon?
  • Answer: A rise in morning blood glucose WITHOUT preceding hypoglycemia, caused by natural overnight release of growth hormone. Q29. A patient presents with acute hepatitis caused by an overdose of a common OTC medication. Which medication is the most likely cause?
  • Answer: Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
  • Answer: Exotoxic (Gram-positive). Q35. A patient with recurrent kidney stones asks which supplement to avoid. The nurse advises against Calcium supplements. What other medication requires caution in stone formers?
  • Answer: Loop diuretics (increase calcium excretion) or Calcium- based antacids. Also, patients with gout should avoid Uricosurics if stones are present. Q36. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder. What is the underlying pathophysiological defect?
  • Answer: Defective CFTR protein leading to thick, viscous secretions that obstruct airways and pancreatic ducts. Neurology & Psychiatry Q37. A patient with Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is experiencing a relapse. The pathophysiology of MS involves:
  • Answer: Demyelination of CNS nerve fibers (plaque formation). Q38. A patient with Alzheimer's disease has memory loss and cognitive decline. The primary pathophysiological finding in the brain is:
  • Answer: Neurofibrillary tangles (and amyloid plaques).

Q39. A patient in the ICU is delirious and agitated. The provider orders haloperidol, but the nurse prefers a drug that does not cause respiratory depression. Which anesthetic/sedative is preferred for ICU delirium without respiratory depression?

  • Answer: Dexmedetomidine (Precedex). Q40. Which SSRI is most notable for causing QTc prolongation (heart conduction irregularity)?
  • Answer: Citalopram (Celexa). Fluids, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance Q41. A patient is admitted with Addison's disease. The nurse expects which electrolyte imbalance due to the lack of aldosterone?
  • Answer: Hyperkalemia (high potassium).
  • Rationale: Aldosterone promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion. In Addison's (adrenal insufficiency), aldosterone is low, so sodium is lost and potassium is retained. Q42. A patient with chronic renal failure is unable to excrete potassium. This results in:
  • Answer: Hyperkalemia. Q43. At high altitudes, a person hyperventilates. This leads to what acid-base disturbance?
  • Answer: Decreased plasma oncotic pressure.
  • Rationale: Albumin holds water in the blood vessels (oncotic pressure). Low albumin allows fluid to leak into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Q49. The liver is known to regenerate after partial hepatectomy. This is an example of:
  • Answer: Compensatory hyperplasia. Q50. A patient with a brain tumor has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The arachnoid villi are responsible for:
  • Answer: Absorbing CSF back into the venous system to regulate pressure. Clinical Scenarios & Advanced Pharmacology Q51. A patient is prescribed allopurinol for gout. Why is colchicine or an NSAID often prescribed alongside allopurinol initially?
  • Answer: Allopurinol can precipitate acute gouty attacks by mobilizing uric acid. Q52. What is the mechanism of action of Heparin?
  • Answer: Binds to antithrombin III and inactivates thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa.

Q53. A patient is on long-term steroids for COPD. The nurse knows that suddenly stopping steroids can cause:

  • Answer: Adrenal crisis (due to HPA axis suppression). Q54. A patient has a history of GI bleeding and needs an NSAID for arthritis. Which type is safest?
  • Answer: A COX-2 inhibitor (e.g., Celecoxib). Q55. The provider orders "low dose" heparin post-op. What is the usual dose and monitoring requirement?
  • Answer: 5000 units subcutaneously BID; no aPTT monitoring required. Q56. A patient is taking Rifampin for tuberculosis. The nurse knows this drug will cause:
  • Answer: Orange/red discoloration of body fluids (urine, sweat, tears) and is a potent CYP450 inducer. Q57. A patient experiences a severe allergic reaction. Which immunoglobulin is responsible for triggering histamine release from mast cells?
  • Answer: IgE.

Q63. What is the antidote for Heparin?

  • Answer: Protamine sulfate. Q64. A patient who is HIV positive has a low CD4 count. The nurse understands that HIV primarily targets:
  • Answer: CD4+ T cells (Helper T cells). Q65. A patient is taking an MAOI (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor) for depression. The nurse should advise avoiding foods containing:
  • Answer: Tyramine (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) due to risk of hypertensive crisis. Q66. A patient with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) has a urine specific gravity of 1.001. This indicates:
  • Answer: Diluted urine (normal is 1.005-1.030). DI causes inability to concentrate urine. Q67. A patient is prescribed Clopidogrel (Plavix). If the patient is a "poor metabolizer" of CYP2C19, the drug will:
  • Answer: Be ineffective because it cannot be converted to its active metabolite.

Q68. Which antiemetic is known to cause prolonged QT interval and should be used cautiously in patients with heart conditions?

  • Answer: Ondansetron (Zofran). Q69. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is anemic. This anemia is primarily due to:
  • Answer: Lack of erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Q70. A patient is taking Propofol for sedation. What specific lab value must be monitored?
  • Answer: Triglycerides (Propofol is a lipid emulsion). Q71. A patient with gout is prescribed Allopurinol. What is the mechanism of action?
  • Answer: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor (reduces uric acid production) . Q72. A patient is experiencing an acute gouty attack in the big toe. The first-line treatment is usually:
  • Answer: NSAIDs (Indomethacin, Naproxen) or Colchicine. Q73. A patient is taking Isoniazid (INH) for TB. What vitamin supplementation is required to prevent peripheral neuropathy?
  • Answer: Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine).

Q79. A patient experiences a "type A" adverse drug reaction. This is characterized as:

  • Answer: Pharmacological (predictable, dose-dependent, e.g., bleeding from Warfarin). Q80. A patient experiences a "type B" adverse drug reaction. This is characterized as:
  • Answer: Idiosyncratic (unpredictable, not dose-dependent, e.g., anaphylaxis). Q81. A patient has been taking Nitroglycerin patches continuously for a week and now reports the drug is not working. This is likely due to:
  • Answer: Tolerance (need a nitrate-free interval of 10-12 hours to restore sensitivity). Q82. A patient is taking a drug that is a CYP3A4 inducer (e.g., Carbamazepine, St. John's Wort). This will cause levels of other drugs metabolized by CYP3A4 to:
  • Answer: Decrease (reduced efficacy). Q83. A patient with asthma has a peak flow that is 50% of personal best. The nurse classifies this as:
  • Answer: Severe exacerbation (Red zone).

Q84. A patient is taking Warfarin and begins taking Rifampin. The INR drops. This is because Rifampin is:

  • Answer: A CYP450 inducer, increasing Warfarin metabolism and lowering the INR. Q85. An infant has meconium ileus. The nurse suspects:
  • Answer: Cystic Fibrosis (CF). Q86. A patient is scheduled for surgery and is taking Aspirin daily. Why must Aspirin be stopped 5-7 days before surgery?
  • Answer: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1, affecting platelet function for the life of the platelet (7-10 days), increasing bleeding risk. Q87. A patient presents with a blood pressure of 180/110 and a history of cocaine use. The elevated BP is due to:
  • Answer: Sympathetic stimulation (alpha-1 mediated vasoconstriction). Q88. A patient is taking Lithium for bipolar disorder. What baseline lab is most critical?
  • Answer: Renal function (BUN/Creatinine) and Thyroid function (Lithium can cause nephrogenic DI and hypothyroidism). Q89. A patient is taking Digoxin and reports seeing yellow halos around lights. The nurse suspects: