NUR 641E MIDTERM STUDY GUIDE, Exams of Nursing

NUR 641E MIDTERM STUDY GUIDE 2025

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NUR 641E MIDTERM STUDY GUIDE
Prodrug - Answers :An inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active
metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body.
-Cytochrome P450
-Ex. Aspirin, psilocybin, heroin
Bioavailability - Answers :the rate at and the extent to which a nutrient is absorbed and
used
-Affected by route of administration and drug dosage
-Drug clearance (rate drug leaves circulation)
-Steady state concentration
-Affected by chemical stability, solubility, and first pass
Steady state (of a drug) - Answers :stable level of drug in the body, occurs in 5 half lives
of the drug
-rate of drug being added to system is equal to amount being eliminated from system
Pharmacokinetics - Answers :The process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed
within the body, metabolized, and excreted.
-what the body does to the drug
First pass - Answers :the fact that a medication in the GI tract passes through the liver
before entering other organs
does not - Answers :bioequivalence does/does not affect bioavailability
Bioequivalence - Answers :relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent
drugs.
Bioavailability (is affected by) - Answers :-chemical instability
-solubility
-first pass metabolism
Cytochrome P450 - Answers :-enzymes that function to metabolize potentially toxic
compounds, including drugs and products of endogenous metabolism such as bilirubin,
principally in the liver.
-genetics influence presence of enzymes
-affects metabolism of warfarin, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and statins.
-the levels of these drugs are higher when taken with certain drugs that are inhibitors
(ex. warfarin with omeprazole) because there is competition for enzyme metabolism.
-inducers lead to decreased plasma concentration of drug.
cytochrome p450 inducer - Answers :An inducer increases the metabolism of a
substrate resulting in a decreased level or effect of the substrate
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NUR 641E MIDTERM STUDY GUIDE

Prodrug - Answers :An inactive drug dosage form that is converted to an active metabolite by various biochemical reactions once it is inside the body.

  • Cytochrome P
  • Ex. Aspirin, psilocybin, heroin Bioavailability - Answers :the rate at and the extent to which a nutrient is absorbed and used
  • Affected by route of administration and drug dosage
  • Drug clearance (rate drug leaves circulation)
  • Steady state concentration
  • Affected by chemical stability, solubility, and first pass Steady state (of a drug) - Answers :stable level of drug in the body, occurs in 5 half lives of the drug
  • rate of drug being added to system is equal to amount being eliminated from system Pharmacokinetics - Answers :The process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the body, metabolized, and excreted.
  • what the body does to the drug First pass - Answers :the fact that a medication in the GI tract passes through the liver before entering other organs does not - Answers :bioequivalence does/does not affect bioavailability Bioequivalence - Answers :relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs. Bioavailability (is affected by) - Answers :-chemical instability
  • solubility
  • first pass metabolism Cytochrome P450 - Answers :-enzymes that function to metabolize potentially toxic compounds, including drugs and products of endogenous metabolism such as bilirubin, principally in the liver.
  • genetics influence presence of enzymes
  • affects metabolism of warfarin, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and statins.
  • the levels of these drugs are higher when taken with certain drugs that are inhibitors (ex. warfarin with omeprazole) because there is competition for enzyme metabolism.
  • inducers lead to decreased plasma concentration of drug. cytochrome p450 inducer - Answers :An inducer increases the metabolism of a substrate resulting in a decreased level or effect of the substrate

cytochrome p450 inhibitor - Answers :An inhibitor decreases the metabolism of a substrate resulting in an increased level or effect of the substrate. Clopidogrel - Answers :prodrug that must be activated by hepatic CYP2C metabolism; individuals who are poor metabolizers may not form the active metabolite and have reduced antiplatelet response half-life (determines) - Answers :how often a drug is administered 4 - 5 - Answers :steady state is reached in - times the half-life Warfarin (MOA) - Answers :-Vitamin K antagonist

  • Factors II, VII, IX, X
  • takes several days to take effect
  • monitor INR Vitamin K - Answers :warfarin antidote Heparin (MOA) - Answers :-rapid anticoagulation by binding with antithrombin III and inhibits factors IXa, Xa, XIIa, and XIII
  • aPTT monitoring (low dose SQ does not require monitoring) Apixaban (MOA) - Answers :direct factor Xa inhibitor parenteral administration - Answers :-directly into systemic circulation
  • poor absorption or unstable in GI tract (ex. heparin, insulin), rapid absorption, unable to take meds PO
  • IV, IM, SQ, ID IV - Answers :-into the vein
  • can be given through bolus (rapid peak) or infusion (lower peak, longer duration)
  • ex. rocuronium (neuromuscular blocker) IM - Answers :-aqua solutions absorbed rapidly
  • depot absorbed slowly in a nonaqueous solution such as polyethene glycol (simple diffusion) SQ - Answers :-absorption via simple diffusion
  • constant, slow, and sustained effects
  • not for drugs that cause tissue irritation d/t pain and necrosis ID - Answers :-diagnostic determination and allergy sensitivity inhalation - Answers :-drug effects as rapid as IV bolus
  • minimizes systemic side effects of respiratory drugs

Fondaparinux (MOA) - Answers :-factor Xa inhibitor

  • Arixtra Pulmonary Embolism - Answers :-usually a clot from the leg that blocks the pulmonary vasculature
  • affects right ventricle d/t backing up of blood
  • can cause pulmonary hypertension
  • risk factors: immobility, obesity, hormonal birth control, smoking, HTN pulmonary hypertension - Answers :-elevated pulmonary pressure resulting from an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance to blood flow through small arteries and arterioles.
  • increased afterload causes increase in RV size as contractility cannot overcome the resistance CVA (risk factors) - Answers :HTN, HLD, DM, Smoking, FHx CVA, Hx TIA/CVA, AFib action potential - Answers :-sodium moves into cell (depolarization)
  • threshold potential must be reached
  • potassium moves out of cell (repolarization)
  • returns to resting potential by pumping sodium out of cell and potassium back into cell threshold potential - Answers :The minimum membrane potential that must be reached in order for an action potential to be generated. absolute refractory period - Answers :The minimum length of time after an action potential during which another action potential cannot begin. relative refractory period - Answers :A period after firing when a neuron is returning to its normal polarized state and will fire again only if the incoming message is much stronger than usual caseous necrosis - Answers :-degeneration and death of tissue with a cheese-like appearance
  • associated with TB tuberculosis - Answers :-An infectious disease that may affect almost all tissues of the body, especially the lungs
  • airborne
  • caseous necrosis
  • 1/4 of world population infected - > leading cause of death d/t infectious disease
  • high risk countries include Mexico, Phillippines, Gautamala, China, Haiti, India
  • congregate settings such as homeless shelters are high risk, including for employees
  • increased in the mid 90s d/t AIDS but have decreased since 2000s

isoniazid (INH) - Answers :-antiTB

  • take daily for 6-12 months and most likely with other meds too
  • worked if 3 neg. sputum cultures, no temp.
  • Liver toxicity (hepato) check liver fxn --> JAUNDICE
  • Don't take with alcohol (liver fxn remember?)
  • Take on empty stomach polypharmacy (side effects) - Answers :-hallucinations
  • appetite alterations
  • tiredness, decreased alertness, AMS
  • weakness, falls
  • dizziness
  • skin rashes
  • anxiety, excitability vertical transmission - Answers :when a parasite is transmitted from a parent to its offspring horizontal transmission - Answers :disease is spread through a population from one infected individual to another empiric antimicrobial therapy - Answers :1) site of infection and organism most likely to be colonizing the site
  1. prior knowledge of bacteria known to colonize the person
  2. local bacteria resistance patterns of organisms that are available at the hospital (antibiotics that) inhibit cell wall integrity - Answers :-penicillins
  • ampicillin
  • cephalosporins
  • carbapenems (antibiotics that) inhibit bacterial protein synthesis - Answers :-aminoglycoside
  • tetracyclines
  • fluoroquinolones Fluoroquinolones - Answers :use is reserved for pneumonias or exasperations of chronic bronchitis to decrease the potential for development of further development endotoxic bacteria - Answers :-gram negative bacteria that stain red or pink
  • stuck to outside of cell and released when the bacteria die
  • LPS exotoxic bacteria - Answers :-gram positive bacteria that stain purple
  • released from bacteria invasion period - Answers :-when immune and inflammatory responses are initiated

(types of) T cells - Answers :Helper T cells (CD4+): stimulates cytotoxic t cells, B cells, and macrophages to develop immune response Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+): simulates cell apopotosis Memory T cells: antigen specific t cells that retain a memory of prior infections ABO (compatibility) - Answers :O is universal donor; AB universal receiver respiratory acidosis (causes) - Answers :• Depression of the respiratory center. (1) Head injuries. (2) Oversedation with sedatives and/or narcotics.

  • Conditions affecting pulmonary function. (1) COPD (2) Pneumonia. (3) Atelectasis.
  • Conditions that interfere with chest wall excursion. (1) Thoracic trauma: flail chest. (2) Diseases affecting innervation of thoracic muscle (Guillain-Barré syndrome, myasthenia gravis, polio). (3) Mechanical hypoventilation. cytokines (cause fever) - Answers :These proinflammatory cytokines reach the CNS where, through induction of central mediators such as prostaglandins (PGs), they are able to increase the temperature set point and cause fever
  • hypothalamus regulates temperature Asthma - Answers :-chronic inflammatory disorder of the bronchial mucosa that causes bronchial hyper-responsiveness, constriction of the airways, and variable airflow obstruction that is reversible
  • chest constriction, expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive coughing, prolonged expiration, tachycardia, an tachypnea, pulsus paradoxus, respiratory alkalosis, hypoxemia pulsus paradoxus - Answers :beats have weaker amplitude with respiratory inspiration, stronger with expiration increased (RR) - Answers :- Fever
  • Asthma
  • Dehydration
  • COPD
  • Hyperventilation
  • Lung conditions
  • Infections
  • Newborns
  • Acidosis
  • Overdoses
  • Heart Conditions
  • increased CO2 levels, decreased O2 levels COPD (treatment) - Answers :COPD TREATMENT ● Immunizations ● Antibiotics ● Bronchodialators ● Corticosteroids - Oral and Inhaled ● Beta-Adrenergic Agonists ● Oxygen Therapy - Low flow rate: Normally, CO2 stimulates breathing b/c it initiates Hypoxic Drive. Chronic COPD patients have chronic elevated carbon dioxide levels. They "retrain" their bodies to breath when they are low in oxygen. High rate flow may actually stop breathing. This will increase PaC02 leading to somulence and respiratory failure. infant weight loss - Answers :-average of 5% over the first 3-4 days
  • water loss hypoxemia (at altitude) - Answers :-lack of oxygen at high levels
  • causes hyperventilation to accomodate for lack of O
  • leads to respiratory alkalosis (normal) magnesium - Answers :1.5-2. (normal) calcium - Answers :8.5-10. (normal) sodium - Answers :135- 145 (normal) potassium - Answers :3.5- 5 aldosterone - Answers :-"salt-retaining hormone" which promotes the retention of Na+ by the kidneys. na+ retention promotes water retention, which promotes a higher blood volume and pressure
  • promotes potassium excretion
  • acts on late distal tubule and collecting duct of kidney loop diuretics (MOA) - Answers :Act on ascending loop of Henle, inhibit sodium- potassium-chloride transporter; decrease renal vascular resistance thiazide diuretics (MOA) - Answers :Decrease sodium reabsorption at distal convoluted tubule; net loss of sodium and potassium potassium sparing diuretics (MOA) - Answers :Aldosterone antagonist in the distal convoluted tubule

NSAID alternative - Answers :COX 2 inhibitors; given with risk of GI bleed (indicated by darkening stool and epigastric pain) diphenhydramine (side effects) - Answers :Cardiovascular: tachycardia, hypotension, palpitations Neurological: drowsiness, seizures Respiratory: mucus plugs, wheezing lortadine - Answers :lack of sedation and impairment of performance, longer duration of action, and absence of anticholinergic side effects. dimenhydrinate (onset of action) - Answers :within 15 minutes; lasts 3-6 hours (patients with history of kidney stones should) avoid - Answers :calcium tendon rupture - Answers :Fluoroquinolones have a black box warning for _____ _____ or tendonitis. There is an increased risk in elderly patients. Pseudomembranous colitis - Answers :Clindamycin, ampicillin, cephalosporins (C. diff) chronic pain - Answers :episode of pain that lasts for 6 months or longer; may be intermittent or continuous. NOT cancer pain