NURS 5432 UTA Final Exam Review: Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive review for the nurs 5432 uta final exam, featuring a series of questions and their correct answers. It covers a range of topics relevant to nursing practice, including anemia, lead poisoning, hemoglobin levels, and various diagnostic tests. Additionally, it addresses gynecological conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease, bacterial vaginosis, and vulvovaginal candidiasis, along with their respective treatments. The review also includes information on peptic ulcers, gerd, and common skin infections like impetigo, offering a valuable resource for nursing students preparing for their final exam. This study guide is designed to help students reinforce their understanding of key concepts and improve their exam performance.

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NURS 5432 UTA FINAL EXAM
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST
GUIDE GRADED A+ .
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NURS 5432 UTA FINAL EXAM

REVIEW QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT ANSWERS LATEST

GUIDE GRADED A+.

  1. Microcytic anemia: Characterized by small, pale red blood cells.
  2. Hypochromic anemia: Anemia with low hemoglobin concentration.
  3. Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA): Caused by low iron intake or blood loss.
  4. Thalassemia CORRECT ANSWER Hereditary disorder affecting hemoglobin synthesis.
  5. Lead poisoning CORRECT ANSWER Toxic accumulation of lead causing anemia.
  6. Hemoglobin (Hgb) CORRECT ANSWER Protein in red blood cells carrying oxygen.
  7. Hematocrit (Hct) CORRECT ANSWER Percentage of blood volume occupied by red cells.
  8. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) CORRECT ANSWER Average volume of red blood cells.
  9. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) CORRECT ANSWER Average concentra- tion of hemoglobin in red cells.
  10. Red Blood Cell Distribution Width (RDW) CORRECT ANSWER Measure of variation in red blood cell size.
  11. Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) CORRECT ANSWER Measure of blood's capacity to bind iron.
  12. Serum ferritin CORRECT ANSWER Indicator of stored iron in the body.
  13. Elemental iron dosage for adults CORRECT ANSWER 100 to 200 mg/day for iron deficiency.
  14. Elemental iron dosage for children CORRECT ANSWER 3 to 6 mg/kg/day for iron deficiency.
  15. Reticulocyte count CORRECT ANSWER Indicator of bone marrow response to anemia.
  16. IV iron therapy CORRECT ANSWER Used for patients intolerant to oral iron.
  17. Ferric carboxymaltose CORRECT ANSWER IV iron formulation given over 15 minutes.
  18. Lean body weight (LBW) CORRECT ANSWER Used to calculate required elemental iron.
  19. Desired Hemoglobin (Hgb) CORRECT ANSWER Target hemoglobin level in g/dL.
  20. Observed Hemoglobin (Hgb) CORRECT ANSWER Current hemoglobin level in g/dL.
  21. Ferritin level in IDA CORRECT ANSWER Low ferritin indicates iron deficiency anemia.
  22. Ferritin level in Thalassemia CORRECT ANSWER Normal ferritin despite low hemoglobin levels.
  23. Hemoglobin electrophoresis CORRECT ANSWER Test to identify types of hemoglobin present.
  1. Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Normal CORRECT ANSWER Normal distribution of hemoglobin types.
  2. Hemoglobin Electrophoresis Abnormal in beta-thalassemia CORRECT ANSWER Indicates pres- ence of abnormal hemoglobin in beta-thalassemia.
  3. Lead poisoning CORRECT ANSWER Chronic disease from toxic lead accumulation.
  4. CDC definition of lead poisoning CORRECT ANSWER Level >5 mg/dl indicates lead poisoning.
  5. Sources of lead exposure CORRECT ANSWER Includes paint, soil, gas emissions, and remedies.
  6. Burtonian lines CORRECT ANSWER Bluish discoloration of gingival border due to lead.
  7. Sickle Cell Anemia CORRECT ANSWER Anemia caused by abnormal hemoglobin (Hgb S).
  8. Sickle cell trait (Hgb AS) CORRECT ANSWER Asymptomatic carrier of sickle cell gene.
  9. Sickle cell anemia (Hgb SS) CORRECT ANSWER Homozygous condition causing severe anemia.
  10. Vaso-occlusive crisis CORRECT ANSWER Severe pain due to blood vessel blockage.
  11. Fetal Fibronectin (fFN) CORRECT ANSWER Protein maintaining amniotic sac integrity.
  12. Management of Sickle Cell Anemia CORRECT ANSWER Includes hydration, pain management, and folic acid.
  13. Indirect bilirubin elevated CORRECT ANSWER Indicates increased breakdown of red blood cells.
  14. Howell-Jolly bodies CORRECT ANSWER Nucleated red blood cells in asplenic conditions.
  15. fFN testing CORRECT ANSWER Screening for preterm labor risk in symptomatic women.
  16. Pap smear CORRECT ANSWER Cervical cancer screening test for women.
  17. American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines CORRECT ANSWER Recommends Pap smears start- ing at 25 years.
  18. Primary HPV testing CORRECT ANSWER Preferred method for cervical cancer screening for 5 years.
  19. Co-testing CORRECT ANSWER Combination of Pap smear and HPV test for 5 years.
  20. Cytology alone CORRECT ANSWER Pap smear without HPV testing for 3 years.
  21. Hysterectomy testing recommendation CORRECT ANSWER Not recommended if no history of cervical

cancer.

  1. CIN I CORRECT ANSWER Mild dysplasia, changes limited to lower third epithelium.
  2. CIN II CORRECT ANSWER Moderate dysplasia, changes in lower two-thirds epithelium.
  3. CIN III CORRECT ANSWER Severe dysplasia, changes throughout entire epithelium thickness.
  4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) organisms CORRECT ANSWER Includes Neisseria gonor- rhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
  5. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV) symptoms CORRECT ANSWER Grayish discharge, fishy odor, pH 5.0-5.5.
  6. Metronidazole treatment CORRECT ANSWER 500 mg PO BID for 7 days for BV.
  7. Trichomonas symptoms CORRECT ANSWER Vaginal pruritis, frothy yellow-green discharge, straw- berry cervix.
  8. Atrophic Vaginitis CORRECT ANSWER Caused by estrogen deficiency, leads to vaginal dryness.
  1. Erythromycin CORRECT ANSWER Alternative for PCN allergy, 250mg QID.
  2. Topical Corticosteroids CORRECT ANSWER Used for various skin conditions, potency varies.
  3. Helicobacter pylori CORRECT ANSWER Bacteria linked to peptic ulcers.
  4. Duodenal ulcer CORRECT ANSWER Most common type of peptic ulcer.
  5. Gastric ulcer CORRECT ANSWER Ulcer aggravated by food intake.
  6. PPI CORRECT ANSWER Proton pump inhibitors, first-line for ulcers.
  7. Omeprazole CORRECT ANSWER PPI, 20mg/day for ulcer treatment.
  8. Esomeprazole CORRECT ANSWER PPI, 40mg/day for ulcer treatment.
  9. Red flag symptoms CORRECT ANSWER Indicate serious complications in ulcer patients.
  10. CBC CORRECT ANSWER Complete blood count, used for diagnostics.
  11. Endoscopy CORRECT ANSWER Procedure for diagnosing ulcers after 8-12 weeks.
  12. NSAID-induced ulcers CORRECT ANSWER Often asymptomatic until perforation occurs.
  13. H2 blockers CORRECT ANSWER Histamine-2 receptor antagonists for acid reduction.
  1. Ranitidine CORRECT ANSWER 150 mg BID for treating acid-related conditions.
  2. Famotidine CORRECT ANSWER 20 mg/day for managing gastric acid secretion.
  3. CrCl <50 ml/min CORRECT ANSWER Reduce H2 blocker dose by 50%.
  4. Quadruple therapy CORRECT ANSWER 14 days of PPI, amoxicillin, metronidazole, clarithromycin.
  5. Bismuth quadruple therapy CORRECT ANSWER Includes PPI, Bismuth, metronidazole, tetracy- cline.
  6. Antibiotic resistance CORRECT ANSWER High resistance noted in treating infections.
  7. Sucralfate CORRECT ANSWER Reduces absorption of certain antibiotics.
  8. Cimetidine CORRECT ANSWER Inhibits P450; avoid with certain medications.
  9. Omeprazole CORRECT ANSWER May prolong elimination of specific drugs.
  10. GERD CORRECT ANSWER Gastroesophageal reflux disease causing heartburn.
  11. Risk factors for GERD CORRECT ANSWER Obesity, hiatal hernia, pregnancy, tobacco, alcohol.
  12. Phase II treatment CORRECT ANSWER PPIs like pantoprazole and omeprazole used.
  13. Hypomagnesemia CORRECT ANSWER Risk associated with prolonged PPI use.
  14. Tanner Stages CORRECT ANSWER Scale for breast development in girls.
  15. Thelarche CORRECT ANSWER Onset of breast development after age 8.
  16. Stage 3 Tanner CORRECT ANSWER Hair coarsens, darkens, and spreads.
  17. Epididymitis treatment without STI CORRECT ANSWER Levofloxacin 500 mg daily for 10 days.
  18. Epididymitis with STI CORRECT ANSWER Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline for treatment.
  19. Testicular torsion CORRECT ANSWER Acute pain due to interrupted blood flow.
  20. Prehn's sign CORRECT ANSWER Elevation of scrotum worsens pain in torsion.
  21. Absent cremasteric reflex CORRECT ANSWER No retraction of testicle upon thigh stimulation.
  22. BPH CORRECT ANSWER Benign prostatic hyperplasia; common in older men.
  23. Distended bladder CORRECT ANSWER Enlarged bladder due to urine retention.
  24. Non-tender prostate CORRECT ANSWER Prostate enlargement without pain or discomfort.
  1. Cholinesterase Inhibitors CORRECT ANSWER Medications for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer's treatment.
  2. Donepezil (Aricept) CORRECT ANSWER Start 5 mg; increase to 10 mg daily.
  3. Galantamine (Reminyl) CORRECT ANSWER Start 4 mg twice daily; extended-release available.
  4. Rivastigmine (Exelon) CORRECT ANSWER Start 1.5 mg twice daily; patch option available.
  5. NMDA Receptor Blocker CORRECT ANSWER Used for moderate-to-severe Alzheimer's cases.
  6. Memantine (Namenda) CORRECT ANSWER Start at 5 mg; titrate to 10 mg twice daily.
  7. Supportive measures CORRECT ANSWER Include exercise and social engagement for dementia.
  8. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) CORRECT ANSWER Common vaginal infection characterized by clue cells.
  9. Ceftriaxone dosage CORRECT ANSWER 500 mg IM for <150kg; 1 gm for e150kg.
  10. Doxycycline regimen CORRECT ANSWER 100 mg BID for 7 days for chlamydia.
  11. Azithromycin dosage CORRECT ANSWER 1 gm single dose for chlamydia treatment.
  12. Levofloxacin dosage CORRECT ANSWER 500 mg orally for 7 days for chlamydia.
  13. Rivastigmine CORRECT ANSWER Cholinesterase inhibitor for Alzheimer's treatment.
  14. Memantine CORRECT ANSWER NMDA receptor blocker for moderate-to-severe Alzheimer's.
  15. Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg) CORRECT ANSWER Indicates active hepatitis B infection presence.
  16. Antibodies to Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (Anti-HBs) CORRECT ANSWER Indicates immunity from vaccination or past infection.
  17. Hepatitis B Core Antibodies (Anti-HBc) CORRECT ANSWER Shows previous or current exposure to hepatitis B.
  18. IgM Anti-HBc CORRECT ANSWER Suggests recent hepatitis B infection.
  19. IgG Anti-HBc CORRECT ANSWER Indicates past exposure to hepatitis B.
  20. Low albumin levels CORRECT ANSWER Linked to decreased hepatic flow in elderly.
  1. Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) CORRECT ANSWER Hormonal disorder causing anovula- tion and infertility.
  2. Hirsutism CORRECT ANSWER Excessive hair growth in females, common in PCOS.
  3. Transvaginal ultrasound CORRECT ANSWER Used to visualize enlarged ovaries in PCOS.
  4. Serum testosterone CORRECT ANSWER Elevated in PCOS, indicating hormonal imbalance.
  5. Metformin CORRECT ANSWER Used to induce ovulation in PCOS patients.
  6. Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome) CORRECT ANSWER Genetic disorder causing developmental and physical abnormalities.
  7. Brushfield spots CORRECT ANSWER White spots on the iris, associated with Down syndrome.
  8. Trichomoniasis CORRECT ANSWER Sexually transmitted infection treated with metronidazole.
  9. Valacyclovir CORRECT ANSWER Antiviral for herpes suppressive therapy.
  10. ABCDE Criteria CORRECT ANSWER Guideline for assessing melanoma risk in lesions.
  11. Postpartum visits CORRECT ANSWER Assess maternal and infant health after childbirth.
  12. Iron storage in infants CORRECT ANSWER Important for preventing anemia in early life.