NURS231 BIOD331 Module 4 Exam 2026 (PDF) | Pathophysiology | Portage Learning, Exams of Pathophysiology

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➢ Updated 2 Version Exam + Study Guide

➢ True & False Questions

➢ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

➢ Expert-Verified Explanations

Table of Contents

BIOD 331 MODULE 4 EXAM VERSION 1 ..................................................... 2

BIOD 331 MODULE 4 EXAM VERSION 2 ................................................... 41

BIOD 331 MODULE 4 EXAM STUDY GUIDE .............................................. 67

BIOD 331 MODULE 4 EXAM VERSION 1

Question 1

The coagulation cascade involves each of the following except:

• Make thrombocytes

Verified Explanation:

Question 2

Which of the following medications would decrease a person’s risk for clotting? Select all that apply.

• Heparin
• Warfarin
• Lovenox (enoxaparin)

Verified Explanation: Heparin, warfarin, and Lovenox are anticoagulants that interfere with different aspects of coagulation. Heparin and Lovenox (a low-molecular-weight heparin) enhance antithrombin III activity, while warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors. Vitamin K is needed for clotting factor synthesis and could promote clotting if used in excess.

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A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply.

• Protein C
• Protein S
• Antithrombin III

Verified Explanation: Protein C, Protein S, and Antithrombin III are endogenous anticoagulants. Deficiencies in these increase the risk for hypercoagulable states. Factors II, VII, IX, X, and prothrombin deficiencies lead to bleeding disorders, not clotting.

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Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply.

• Hemophilia A
• Hemophilia B
• Thrombocytopenia

Verified Explanation: Hemophilia A and B are bleeding disorders caused by deficiencies of clotting factors VIII and IX, respectively. Thrombocytopenia is a condition of decreased platelet number and is associated with bleeding, not thrombosis (hypercoagulability).

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Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply.

• Congestive heart failure
• Smoking
• Postsurgical state

Verified Explanation: Hypercoagulable states are promoted by conditions such as postsurgical state, congestive heart failure (due to sluggish blood flow), and smoking (causing endothelial injury). Hemophilia A and thrombocytopenia are associated with hypocoagulability (bleeding).

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Question 4

Which of the following defects is associated with hemophilia A?

Question 5

Well-known causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) include each of the following conditions except:

• Heparin administration

Verified Explanation: DIC is associated with retained dead fetus, carcinoma, and Gram-negative sepsis. Heparin is an anticoagulant and is not a cause of DIC.

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In which of the following was is blood flow NOT negatively affected?

• Low Hematocrit

Verified Explanation: Low hematocrit reduces blood viscosity, making flow easier, not more difficult. Increased viscosity and reduced vessel diameter reduce flow; low compliance also impairs flow.

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Question 6

Cardiac output is determined by what 2 factors? Select all that apply.

• Stroke volume
• Heart rate

Verified Explanation:

Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume (volume of blood pumped per beat) and heart rate (beats per minute). Ejection fraction and preload affect or derive from these but are not the determinants themselves.

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Which of the following does NOT affect the heart’s ability to increase its output?

• Cardiac reserve

Verified Explanation: Preload, afterload, cardiac contractility, and heart rate all directly affect cardiac output. Cardiac reserve reflects the potential for increased output; it is not a direct, modifiable factor.

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Which of the following increases strength of the muscular contraction?

• Inotropic influence

Verified Explanation: Inotropes (such as catecholamines) directly increase cardiac contractility. Positive inotropes strengthen contraction; negative inotropes weaken it.

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Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a regulator of blood pressure?

• Parasympathetic nervous system activation

Antiphospholipid syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following? Select all that apply.

• Bleeding risk

Verified Explanation: Antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with increased thrombotic risk, recurrent fetal loss, thrombocytopenia, and SLE but not with a bleeding risk.

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Which of the following does NOT lead to an increased risk for DVT? Select all that apply.

• Non-Smoker

Verified Explanation: Factor V Leiden (mutation), obesity, and sepsis all increase DVT risk. Non-smoking does not.

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Question 9

Which of the following is NOT associated with iron deficiency anemia?

• Normocytic
• Neurological changes

Verified Explanation:

Iron deficiency anemia is typically microcytic/hypochromic, associated with decreased MCV, low hemoglobin, pica, fatigue, and brittle hair/nails. Neurological changes are seen in B12 (not iron) deficiency.

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What is the most specific test for diagnosing iron deficiency anemia?

• Ferritin

Verified Explanation: Serum ferritin reflects body iron stores and decreases before anemia is manifest. It is the most specific laboratory marker for iron deficiency anemia.

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Question 10

Hemolytic anemias are characterized by each of the following except:

• Decrease in erythropoiesis

Verified Explanation: Hemolytic anemias show increased, not decreased, erythropoiesis as the marrow compensates for increased red cell destruction.

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What are the two most common causes of macrocytic anemia?

• Vitamin B12 deficiency and Folate deficiency

What are the two MAJOR causes of microcytic anemias?

Which of the following is FALSE regarding sickle cell disease?

• Average red cell lifespan is 60 days

Verified Explanation: Normal red cell lifespan is about 120 days; in sickle cell disease, it is much shorter (~ days), not 60. All other statements are correct.

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Question 12

The patient is found to be a severely malnourished alcoholic. The most likely cause of his anemia is:

• Folate deficiency

Verified Explanation: Alcoholics are at increased risk of folate deficiency due to poor intake and impaired absorption, leading to megaloblastic anemia.

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A 23-year-old African-American man with a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities?

• Sickle cells on peripheral blood smear

Verified Explanation: The clinical scenario describes sickle cell disease, confirmed by sickled RBCs on smear.

A child with homozygous sickle cell disease arrives at the ER... Spleen is palpable but not visualized on scintigraphy. Likely complication?

• Functional asplenia

Verified Explanation: Repeated vaso-occlusion leads to splenic infarction, causing functional asplenia—spleen is fibrotic and non-functional despite possibly being palpable.

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The spleen of a patient with sickle cell anemia would be

• Shrunken

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Question 13

Which of the following is NOT true of thalassemias?

• Hypochromic, macrocytic anemia

Verified Explanation: Thalassemias cause a hypochromic, microcytic anemia, not macrocytic.

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Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

• MCV is DECREASED
• Dietary deficiencies are common

Verified Explanation: Neutropenia impairs the primary defense against bacteria; infection risk rises sharply with counts <1000/μL.

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Question 15

Lifestyle changes to treat hyperlipidemia include each of the following except:

• Increase red meat consumption

Verified Explanation: Red meat is generally high in cholesterol and saturated fats.

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Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except:

• HDL > 60

Verified Explanation: High HDL is protective against CHD.

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An increased incidence of atherosclerosis has been correlated with each of the following associations except:

• Increased serum HDL concentration

Question 16

The following are all drug therapies used to treat hyperlipidemia except:

• Beta-blockers

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Risk factors for atherosclerosis include each of the following except:

• Female gender (pre-menopause)

Verified Explanation: Pre-menopausal estrogen is protective against atherosclerosis.

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Which of the following is true of fatty streaks of atherosclerotic lesions?

• Consist of macrophages and smooth muscle cells

Verified Explanation: Fatty streaks are subendothelial accumulations of lipid-laden macrophages (foam cells) and some smooth muscle proliferation.

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Question 17

Match the cardiac procedures:

Question 18

1. Explain how ventricular hypertrophy is an adaptive mechanism: Ventricular hypertrophy develops in response to sustained increases in workload, such as those imposed by hypertension or valvular disease. Increased wall stress stimulates myocyte growth, resulting in hypertrophy, which compensates for the enhanced demand placed on the ventricle. This adaptation helps the heart maintain cardiac output against increased afterload or preload but can be maladaptive if prolonged. 2. What happens during exercise in someone with coronary artery disease? Exercise elevates myocardial oxygen demand. In coronary artery disease, fixed atherosclerotic narrowing limits the ability of vessels to dilate in response to increased demand, resulting in myocardial ischemia manifesting as angina.

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Explain the differences among stable angina, unstable angina, and myocardial infarction:

- Stable angina: Fixed stenosis; symptoms occur with exertion, relieved by rest/nitroglycerin. - Unstable angina: Increasing or at-rest symptoms, partial occlusion; relieved by nitroglycerin, not always by rest; higher risk for progression to MI. - Myocardial infarction: Complete vessel occlusion; unrelieved by rest or nitroglycerin, associated with tissue necrosis and typical “crushing” pain, often accompanied by diaphoresis, nausea, weakness, or dyspnea.

Question 19

1. Name 2 biomarkers that elevate during a myocardial infarction:

• Troponin
• Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) 2. Besides chest pain, name 2 other symptoms a person may experience during a myocardial infarction:
• Shortness of breath (dyspnea)
• Nausea/vomiting, weakness, fatigue, pain radiating to jaw/left arm

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1. Name 2 lifestyle changes to prevent further progression of atherosclerotic diseases:

• Smoking cessation
• Regular aerobic exercise, weight loss, low-fat diet **2. Name 2 medications used to treat someone with coronary artery disease and their mechanisms of action:
• Aspirin:** Inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing thrombosis risk - Beta-blockers: Lower heart rate and contractility, decreasing myocardial oxygen demand

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Hypertension is often called “the silent killer... What is this term called?

• End-organ damage (or silent organ damage)