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Question 1. Which directional term describes a structure that is closer to the midline of the body? A) Superior B) Lateral C) Proximal D) Medial Answer: D Explanation: Medial means nearer to the midsagittal plane (midline), whereas lateral is farther from it. Question 2. The plane that divides the body into right and left halves is called the: A) Frontal (coronal) plane B) Transverse (horizontal) plane C) Sagittal plane D) Oblique plane Answer: C Explanation: The sagittal plane runs vertically and divides the body into right and left portions. Question 3. Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs? A) Abdominal cavity B) Dorsal cavity C) Pelvic cavity D) Thoracic cavity Answer: D Explanation: The thoracic cavity houses the heart (in the pericardial cavity) and the lungs (in the pleural cavities).
Question 4. The level of organization that includes tissues, organs, and organ systems is: A) Cellular level B) Chemical level C) Organismal level D) Tissue level Answer: C Explanation: The organismal level refers to the whole living individual composed of organ systems. Question 5. Which of the following best defines homeostasis? A) The process of cell division B) Maintaining a stable internal environment C) The conversion of glucose to ATP D) The synthesis of proteins Answer: B Explanation: Homeostasis is the body’s ability to maintain internal stability despite external changes. Question 6. A negative feedback loop is characterized by: A) Amplifying the original stimulus B) Reversing a deviation from the set point C) Producing a rapid, uncontrolled response D) Initiating a chain reaction that escalates Answer: B Explanation: Negative feedback reduces the magnitude of change, bringing the system back toward its set point.
A) Allows it to act as a non‑conductive barrier. B) Enables hydrogen bonding and solvent properties. C) Makes it insoluble in most substances. D) Prevents it from participating in metabolic reactions. Answer: B Explanation: Water’s polar nature creates hydrogen bonds, making it an excellent solvent for ionic and polar molecules. Question 11. The organelle responsible for producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation is the: A) Nucleus B) Ribosome C) Mitochondrion D) Lysosome Answer: C Explanation: Mitochondria generate ATP via the electron transport chain and chemiosmosis. Question 12. Which structure houses the cell’s genetic material? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Nucleus D) Cytoplasm Answer: C Explanation: The nucleus contains DNA organized into chromosomes. Question 13. Ribosomes are the site of: A) Lipid synthesis
B) Protein synthesis C) DNA replication D) ATP production Answer: B Explanation: Ribosomes translate mRNA into polypeptide chains, forming proteins. Question 14. The primary function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is to: A) Synthesize lipids B) Detoxify chemicals C) Manufacture proteins destined for secretion or membranes D) Store calcium ions Answer: C Explanation: RER is studded with ribosomes that produce proteins for export or membrane insertion. Question 15. Which transport process requires cellular energy (ATP)? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Osmosis D) Active transport Answer: D Explanation: Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient using ATP. Question 16. The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called: A) Diffusion B) Active transport
D) Pseudostratified columnar Answer: C Explanation: Simple columnar epitheliocytes line the digestive tract and are adapted for absorption and secretion. Question 20. Stratified squamous epithelium is primarily found in: A) Alveoli of the lungs B) Lining of the small intestine C) Epidermis of the skin D) Kidney tubules Answer: C Explanation: This tissue provides protection against abrasion in the skin and oral cavity. Question 21. Which connective tissue type serves as a transport medium for nutrients, gases, and wastes? A) Bone B) Adipose tissue C) Blood D cartilage Answer: C Explanation: Blood circulates oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic waste throughout the body. Question 22. Hyaline cartilage is most abundant in: A) Intervertebral discs B) Articular surfaces of joints C) The ear pinna
D) The epiphyseal plate only Answer: B Explanation: Hyaline cartilage provides smooth, low‑friction surfaces at joint ends. Question 23. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary, striated, and found only in the heart? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Myocardial muscle Answer: C Explanation: Cardiac muscle cells are striated, branch, and contract without conscious control. Question 24. The neuromuscular junction is the synapse between: A) Two motor neurons B) A sensory neuron and a muscle fiber C) A motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber D) An interneuron and a skeletal muscle fiber Answer: C Explanation: The motor neuron releases acetylcholine onto the muscle fiber’s motor end‑plate to initiate contraction. Question 25. Which neuroglial cell forms the myelin sheath in the peripheral nervous system? A) Oligodendrocyte B) Schwann cell C) Astrocyte
Answer: B Explanation: Sebum lubricates skin and hair, providing waterproofing and antimicrobial properties. Question 29. The primary function of eccrine sweat glands is to: A) Produce oil for skin protection B) Regulate body temperature through evaporative cooling C) Secrete pheromones D) Provide sensory feedback Answer: B Explanation: Eccrine glands release watery sweat that evaporates, dissipating heat. Question 30. Vitamin D synthesis in the skin requires exposure to: A) Infrared radiation B) Ultraviolet B (UVB) rays C) Visible light D) Ultraviolet A (UVA) rays Answer: B Explanation: UVB photons convert 7‑dehydrocholesterol to pre‑vitamin D3 in the epidermis. Question 31. Long bones are characterized by which structural feature? A) A central medullary cavity surrounded by compact bone B) Numerous trabeculae with red bone marrow C) Flat, thin plates of bone tissue D) Irregular shape with no clear orientation Answer: A
Explanation: Long bones have a diaphysis with a medullary cavity and epiphyses capped by compact bone. Question 32. Which bone is classified as a short bone? A) Femur B) Vertebra C) Patella D) Carpals Answer: D Explanation: Carpals are cube‑shaped, providing limited movement and shock absorption. Question 33. The axial skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Skull B) Vertebral column C) Ribs D) Pelvic girdle Answer: D Explanation: The pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton. Question 34. A hinge joint permits movement primarily in which planes? A) Multiplanar rotation B) Uniaxial flexion and extension C) Multiaxial abduction and adduction D) Circumduction Answer: B Explanation: Hinge joints (e.g., elbow) allow flexion and extension in one plane.
Question 38. The primary excitatory neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is: A) Dopamine B. Norepinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) GABA Answer: C Explanation: Acetylcholine binds to nicotinic receptors on the motor end‑plate, triggering depolarization. Question 39. Which of the following best describes the role of troponin in skeletal muscle contraction? A) It blocks actin binding sites in the relaxed state. B) It binds calcium, causing tropomyosin to move and expose actin sites. C) It hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy. D) It anchors the muscle fiber to the tendon. Answer: B Explanation: Calcium binds to troponin, shifting tropomyosin and permitting myosin‑actin interaction. Question 40. Which bone is part of the axial skeleton and protects the brain? A) Scapula B) Sternum C) Cranium D) Femur Answer: C Explanation: The cranial bones form the protective case around the brain.
Question 41. The deltoid muscle primarily produces which movement at the shoulder joint? A) Extension B) Flexion C) Abduction D) Internal rotation Answer: C Explanation: The deltoid lifts the arm away from the midline (abduction). Question 42. Which muscle group is the main antagonist to the biceps brachii? A) Triceps brachii B) Brachialis C) Brachioradialis D) Pectoralis major Answer: A Explanation: The triceps extends the forearm, opposing biceps flexion. Question 43. The hormone insulin primarily affects which metabolic pathway? A) Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C) Glycogenesis D. Lipolysis Answer: C Explanation: Insulin stimulates glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis) in liver and muscle.
A) The presence of both A and B antigens B) The absence of antigens C) The presence of only B antigen D) The presence of only A antigen Answer: C Explanation: Type B blood expresses B antigens on red cells and anti‑A antibodies in plasma. Question 48. Which of the following hormones is released by the posterior pituitary? A) Thyroid‑stimulating hormone (TSH) B. Growth hormone (GH) C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) Prolactin Answer: C Explanation: ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary. Question 49. The primary pacemaker of the heart is the: A) AV node B) Bundle of His C) SA node D) Purkinje fibers Answer: C Explanation: The sinoatrial node initiates the electrical impulse that sets the heart rate. Question 50. Which structure prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium? A) Tricuspid valve
B) Mitral valve C) Aortic valve D. Pulmonary valve Answer: B Explanation: The mitral (bicuspid) valve closes during ventricular systole. Question 51. The functional unit of the kidney that performs filtration, reabsorption, and secretion is the: A) Glomerulus B) Loop of Henle C) Nephron D. Collecting duct Answer: C Explanation: Each nephron carries out the processes needed for urine formation. Question 52. Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of water by osmosis? A) Proximal convoluted tubule B) Loop of Henle (descending limb) C) Distal convoluted tubule D) Collecting duct Answer: B Explanation: The descending limb is highly permeable to water, allowing osmotic reabsorption. Question 53. The primary gas exchanged in the alveoli is: A) Oxygen only B) Carbon dioxide only
D) Cytotoxic T cells Answer: C Explanation: Physical barriers like skin and mucosa prevent pathogen entry. Question 57. Which cell type is primarily responsible for myelin production in the central nervous system? A) Schwann cells B) Oligodendrocytes C) Astrocytes D) Microglia Answer: B Explanation: Oligodendrocytes wrap multiple axons with myelin in the CNS. Question 58. The region of the brain that regulates balance and coordination is the: A) Cerebellum B) Medulla oblongata C) Thalamus D. Hypothalamus Answer: A Explanation: The cerebellum integrates sensory input to fine‑tune motor activity. Question 59. Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression? A) Trigeminal (V) B) Facial (VII) C) Glossopharyngeal (IX) D) Vagus (X)
Answer: B Explanation: The facial nerve innervates muscles of facial expression. Question 60. The “fight‑or‑flight” response is primarily mediated by which part of the autonomic nervous system? A) Parasympathetic division B. Sympathetic division C) Somatic nervous system D) Enteric nervous system Answer: B Explanation: The sympathetic division prepares the body for rapid action. Question 61. The hormone that stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex is: A) ACTH B) Aldosterone C) Epinephrine D) Renin Answer: A Explanation: Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary triggers cortisol secretion. Question 62. Which gland secretes melatonin, regulating circadian rhythms? A) Pituitary gland B) Thyroid gland C) Pineal gland D. Adrenal gland Answer: C
