Download PrepIQ NWCA Basic Anatomy and Physiology Ultimate Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
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Question 1. Which directional term correctly describes a structure that is nearer to the midline of the body? A) Lateral B) Distal C) Proximal D) Medial Answer: D Explanation: “Medial” refers to a position closer to the midsagittal plane (midline) of the body. Question 2. The plane that divides the body into right and left halves is called the: A) Transverse plane B) Frontal (coronal) plane C) Sagittal plane D) Oblique plane Answer: C Explanation: The sagittal plane runs vertically and separates the body into right and left portions. Question 3. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity? A) Dorsal cavity B) Ventral cavity C) Abdominal cavity D) Pelvic cavity Answer: B Explanation: The ventral cavity includes the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities; the dorsal cavity contains the cranial and spinal cavities. Question 4. Which level of organization is directly above the tissue level?
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A) Cellular level B) Organ level C) Organ system level D) Chemical level Answer: B Explanation: Tissues combine to form organs, which are the next higher level of organization. Question 5. Homeostasis is primarily maintained by which type of feedback mechanism? A) Positive feedback only B) Negative feedback only C) Both positive and negative feedback D) No feedback is involved Answer: C Explanation: Most homeostatic processes use negative feedback, but some (e.g., childbirth) use positive feedback. Question 6. Which of the following best illustrates a negative feedback loop? A) Release of oxytocin during labor B) Blood clot formation after injury C) Regulation of blood glucose by insulin D) Increase in body temperature during fever Answer: C Explanation: Insulin lowers blood glucose, counteracting the initial rise— characteristic of negative feedback. Question 7. The pH of pure water at 25°C is closest to: A) 5. B) 6.
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D) Nucleolus Answer: B Explanation: The plasma membrane’s phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins regulates transport. Question 11. Facilitated diffusion differs from simple diffusion because it: A) Requires ATP B) Moves substances against a concentration gradient C) Uses carrier proteins D) Only transports ions Answer: C Explanation: Facilitated diffusion uses carrier or channel proteins but does not require energy. Question 12. During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur? A) G1 phase B) S phase C) G2 phase D) M phase Answer: B Explanation: The S (synthesis) phase is when each chromosome is duplicated. Question 13. Which of the following is NOT a type of epithelial tissue classification? A) Simple squamous B) Stratified cuboidal C) Pseudostratified columnar D) Transitional connective Answer: D
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Explanation: “Transitional connective” is not a recognized epithelial type; transitional epithelium is a distinct category but not connective. Question 14. Which connective tissue type is avascular and contains chondrocytes? A) Bone B) Hyaline cartilage C) Adipose tissue D) Blood Answer: B Explanation: Hyaline cartilage is a flexible, avascular tissue with chondrocytes embedded in matrix. Question 15. The primary contractile protein in skeletal muscle fibers is: A) Actin only B) Myosin only C) Both actin and myosin D) Troponin C Answer: C Explanation: Skeletal muscle contraction relies on the interaction of actin (thin) and myosin (thick) filaments. Question 16. Which type of neuron is responsible for transmitting impulses from the central nervous system to effectors? A) Sensory (afferent) neuron B) Interneuron C) Motor (efferent) neuron D) Glial cell Answer: C Explanation: Motor neurons carry signals from CNS to muscles or glands.
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B) Short bone C) Flat bone D) Irregular bone Answer: A Explanation: Long bones have a medullary (marrow) cavity surrounded by compact bone. Question 21. The scapula belongs to which part of the skeleton? A) Axial skeleton B) Appendicular skeleton C) Visceral skeleton D) Cranial skeleton Answer: B Explanation: The scapula is a bone of the upper limb girdle, part of the appendicular skeleton. Question 22. Which joint type allows movement in multiple planes and is found at the shoulder? A) Hinge joint B) Pivot joint C) Ball-and-socket joint D) Saddle joint Answer: C Explanation: The glenohumeral joint is a ball-and-socket joint permitting flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, and rotation. Question 23. During muscle contraction, the troponin-tropomyosin complex moves because of an increase in: A) ADP concentration B) Calcium ion concentration
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C) Magnesium ion concentration D) Sodium ion concentration Answer: B Explanation: Calcium binds to troponin, causing tropomyosin to shift and expose actin binding sites. Question 24. Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for extending the forearm at the elbow? A) Biceps brachii B) Triceps brachii C) Brachialis D) Deltoid Answer: B Explanation: The triceps brachii inserts on the olecranon and extends the forearm. Question 25. The neuromuscular junction contains which neurotransmitter? A) Dopamine B) Acetylcholine C) Norepinephrine D) Serotonin Answer: B Explanation: Acetylcholine is released from the motor neuron terminal to stimulate muscle fibers. Question 26. Which body cavity contains the heart? A) Abdominal cavity B) Pelvic cavity C) Thoracic cavity D) Cranial cavity Answer: C
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Question 30. Which organelle is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for secretion? A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Lysosome D) Peroxisome Answer: B Explanation: The Golgi stacks process and package proteins into vesicles. Question 31. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary and striated? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle D) Myofibrillar muscle Answer: B Explanation: Cardiac muscle is striated like skeletal muscle but under involuntary control. Question 32. The fluid that fills the space between cells in a connective tissue is called: A) Blood plasma B) Lymph C) Extracellular matrix (ECM) D) Interstitial fluid Answer: C Explanation: The ECM includes fibers and ground substance that surround cells in connective tissue. Question 33. Which of the following best describes the function of keratinocytes in the epidermis?
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A) Produce melanin B) Secrete sebum C) Form a protective barrier D) Generate sweat Answer: C Explanation: Keratinocytes synthesize keratin, creating a tough, water-resistant barrier. Question 34. The “axial skeleton” includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Vertebral column B) Ribs C) Pelvic girdle D) Skull Answer: C Explanation: The pelvic girdle is part of the appendicular skeleton. Question 35. Which of the following joints permits only flexion and extension? A) Pivot joint B) Hinge joint C) Saddle joint D) Plane joint Answer: B Explanation: Hinge joints (e.g., elbow, knee) allow movement in one plane—flexion and extension. Question 36. Which layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes? A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum
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Answer: C Explanation: Hyaline cartilage provides a smooth, low-friction surface at synovial joints. Question 40. The term “distal” is most appropriately applied to which pair? A) The wrist is distal to the elbow. B) The elbow is distal to the wrist. C) The shoulder is distal to the hand. D) The hip is distal to the knee. Answer: A Explanation: “Distal” means farther from the point of attachment; the wrist is farther from the shoulder than the elbow. Question 41. Which of the following is a characteristic of simple columnar epithelium? A) Multiple cell layers B) Presence of cilia in respiratory tract C) Flat, scale-like cells D) Highly keratinized surface Answer: B Explanation: Simple columnar epithelium in the respiratory tract often bears cilia for mucus movement. Question 42. Which blood component is primarily responsible for clot formation? A) Red blood cells B) Platelets (thrombocytes) C) Plasma proteins D) White blood cells Answer: B
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Explanation: Platelets aggregate and release factors that initiate the coagulation cascade. Question 43. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to: A) Transport oxygen to tissues B) Return interstitial fluid to the bloodstream C) Produce hormones D) Store calcium Answer: B Explanation: Lymphatic vessels collect excess interstitial fluid and return it to the venous circulation. Question 44. Which of the following best describes the term “isotonic solution” in cellular physiology? A) Higher solute concentration than the cell interior B) Lower solute concentration than the cell interior C) Equal solute concentration to the cell interior D) No solutes present Answer: C Explanation: An isotonic solution has the same osmolarity as the cell’s cytoplasm; no net water movement occurs. Question 45. The primary structural protein of hair and nails is: A) Collagen B) Elastin C) Keratin D) Fibroin Answer: C Explanation: Keratin provides strength and rigidity to hair and nails.
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C) Anaphase D) Telophase Answer: C Explanation: During anaphase, the spindle fibers pull sister chromatids toward opposite poles. Question 50. Which of the following best describes the location of the median plane? A) Divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. B) Divides the body into right and left halves. C) Divides the body into superior and inferior halves. D) Divides the body into dorsal and ventral halves. Answer: B Explanation: The median (mid-sagittal) plane separates the body into equal right and left portions. Question 51. Which type of epithelial tissue lines the urinary bladder? A) Simple squamous B) Transitional epithelium C) Simple columnar D) Stratified cuboidal Answer: B Explanation: Transitional epithelium stretches to accommodate fluctuating bladder volume. Question 52. The “hard palate” is formed primarily by which bone? A) Maxilla B) Zygomatic bone C) Palatine bone D) Vomer
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Answer: A Explanation: The maxilla contributes the majority of the hard palate’s structure. Question 53. Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is TRUE? A) All hormones are proteins. B) Hormones act only on adjacent cells. C) Hormones can be lipophilic or hydrophilic, influencing their transport. D) The nervous system secretes hormones directly into the bloodstream. Answer: C Explanation: Hormones vary in solubility; lipophilic hormones cross membranes, while hydrophilic hormones require carriers or receptors. Question 54. Which of the following is a characteristic of fibroblasts? A) Production of myelin B) Synthesis of extracellular matrix fibers C) Secretion of insulin D) Phagocytosis of bacteria Answer: B Explanation: Fibroblasts generate collagen, elastin, and ground substance of the ECM. Question 55. The “intervertebral foramen” allows passage of: A) Spinal nerves B) Vertebral arteries C) Lymphatic vessels D) Cerebrospinal fluid Answer: A Explanation: Nerves exit the spinal cord through intervertebral foramina.
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B) Elbow and wrist C) Shoulder and wrist D) Hip and knee Answer: A Explanation: The biceps brachii originates on the scapula and inserts on the radius, crossing shoulder and elbow joints. Question 60. Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is correct? A) It controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement. B) It consists of only sympathetic fibers. C) It regulates involuntary functions such as heart rate and digestion. D) Its ganglia are located within the central nervous system. Answer: C Explanation: The ANS manages involuntary physiological processes via sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Question 61. Which of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone? A) Femur B: Patella C) Vertebra D) Scapula Answer: C Explanation: Vertebrae have complex shapes that do not fit other categories, making them irregular bones. Question 62. The “sartorius” muscle is primarily involved in which movement? A) Extension of the knee B) Flexion and lateral rotation of the thigh C) Plantarflexion of the foot
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D) Elevation of the scapula Answer: B Explanation: The sartorius flexes, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh at the hip joint. Question 63. Which of the following best describes the function of the myelin sheath? A) Initiates action potentials B. Stores calcium ions C) Increases the speed of nerve impulse conduction D. Produces neurotransmitters Answer: C Explanation: Myelin insulates axons, allowing saltatory conduction and faster signal propagation. Question 64. The term “palmar” refers to a surface of the: A) Foot B) Hand C) Head D) Knee Answer: B Explanation: “Palmar” designates the anterior (volar) surface of the hand. Question 65. Which of the following is a characteristic of cardiac muscle cells? A) Multinucleated B) Presence of intercalated discs C) Lack of striations D) Voluntary control Answer: B
