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This exam evaluates expertise in coding surgical procedures. It focuses on assigning accurate CPT codes for various types of surgeries, following updated guidelines, and understanding the relationship between different surgical categories and specific code structures.
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Question 1. Which global period applies to a typical skin excision performed in an office setting? A) 0 days B) 10 days C) 30 days D) 90 days Answer: B Explanation: Most minor skin procedures have a 10‑day global period covering pre‑, intra‑, and postoperative services. Question 2. A surgeon performs a bilateral mastectomy on the same operative session. Which modifier should be appended to the CPT code? A) - 50 B) - 51 C) - 59 D) - 62 Answer: A Explanation: Modifier ‑50 indicates a bilateral procedure performed at the same operative session. Question 3. When coding a debridement of a pressure ulcer measuring 12 cm², which CPT code range is appropriate? A) 11042‑ 11045 B) 11046‑ 11047 C) 11055‑ 11057 D) 11060‑ 11062 Answer: A
Explanation: Codes 11042‑11045 are for debridement of skin, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and bone based on surface area; 12 cm² falls within the 11‑ 20 cm² bracket (11044). Question 4. A simple wound repair of a 3 cm linear laceration on the forearm requires which CPT code? A) 12001 B) 12031 C) 12051 D) 12071 Answer: A Explanation: Code 12001 is for simple repair of superficial wounds of the scalp, neck, hands, feet, or trunk ≤2.5 cm; for 3 cm, the next tier (12002) would be used, but since the forearm is not listed, the correct answer reflects the “simple repair” concept; the closest simple repair code is 12001. Question 5. In coding a split‑thickness skin graft harvested from the thigh to cover a 5 % TBSA burn, which add‑on code is required? A) 15100 B) 15102 C) 15271 D) 15273 Answer: B Explanation: Code 15102 is the add‑on for split‑thickness skin grafts harvested from a donor site (e.g., thigh) when the primary graft code (e.g., 15100) is reported. Question 6. Which modifier is used to indicate that a procedure was staged because the surgeon planned a second operation for the same site? A) - 50
Question 9. Which CPT code best describes a lumbar epidural steroid injection performed under fluoroscopic guidance? A) 64479 B) 64480 C) 64483 D) 64484 Answer: C Explanation: Code 64483 is for injection of medication into the epidural or subarachnoid space, lumbar or sacral, with fluoroscopic guidance. Question 10. A surgeon places a permanent pacemaker with dual leads. Which CPT code set should be used? A) 33206‑ 33207 B) 33210‑ 33211 C) 33220‑ 33223 D) 33230‑ 33233 Answer: C Explanation: Codes 33220‑33223 cover insertion of a permanent pacemaker with transvenous electrode(s); dual leads are reported with the appropriate add‑on (33222). Question 11. In coding a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) using the left internal mammary artery to the LAD, which primary CPT code is appropriate? A) 33533 B) 33534 C) 33535 D) 33536 Answer: A
Explanation: Code 33533 reports aortocoronary bypass graft using internal mammary artery to a single coronary artery (LAD). Question 12. Which CPT code is used for a bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest? A) 38220 B) 38221 C) 38230 D) 38240 Answer: A Explanation: Code 38220 is for bone marrow aspiration from the posterior iliac crest. Question 13. A colonoscopy is performed with removal of three polyps, each ≤1 cm, and biopsies of surrounding mucosa. Which CPT code should be reported? A) 45378 B) 45380 C) 45385 D) 45390 Answer: B Explanation: Code 45380 includes colonoscopy with removal of ≤3 polyps ≤1 cm and biopsy of lesion(s). Question 14. Which modifier is appropriate when two unrelated procedures are performed at separate sites during the same operative session? A) - 51 B) - 59 C) - 62
Answer: B Explanation: Code 66984 reports cataract extraction with insertion of IOL (phacoemulsification technique). Question 18. Which CPT code represents a laparoscopic cholecystectomy without cholangiography? A) 47562 B) 47563 C) 47564 D) 47570 Answer: B Explanation: Code 47563 is for laparoscopic cholecystectomy without intraoperative cholangiography. Question 19. A surgeon removes a benign pigmented lesion of the skin measuring 1.2 cm in diameter. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 11400 B) 11401 C) 11402 D) 11403 Answer: B Explanation: Code 11401 is for excision of benign lesion, diameter 1.1‑2.0 cm.
Question 20. When coding a complex wound repair that requires a skin flap, which CPT code range should be used? A) 12031‑ 12034 B) 12051‑ 12054 C) 13100‑ 13104 D) 13120‑ 13124 Answer: C Explanation: Codes 13100‑13104 cover complex repair of wounds requiring local tissue rearrangement or flaps. Question 21. Which CPT code is used for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the lung under CT guidance? A) 32405 B) 32406 C) 32407 D) 32408 Answer: B Explanation: Code 32406 reports percutaneous needle biopsy of lung, percutaneous, with imaging guidance. Question 22. A patient undergoes a bilateral knee arthroscopy with meniscectomy on the left knee and chondroplasty on the right knee in the same session. Which modifier should be added to the second procedure? A) - 50 B) - 51 C) - 59 D) - 62 Answer: B
Answer: A Explanation: Modifier ‑62 denotes two surgeons acting as primary operators. Question 26. A patient receives a thoracoscopic lung biopsy (VATS). Which CPT code is correct? A) 32480 B) 32481 C) 32482 D) 32483 Answer: C Explanation: Code 32482 is for thoracoscopy, surgical; with wedge resection or biopsy of lung. Question 27. Which CPT code set is used to report a primary total knee arthroplasty? A) 27447‑ 27448 B) 27446‑ 27447 C) 27444‑ 27445 D) 27442‑ 27443 Answer: A Explanation: Code 27447 reports total knee arthroplasty, with or without patellar component; 27448 is for revision. Question 28. A surgeon performs a closed reduction of a distal humerus fracture without internal fixation. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 24505 B) 24515 C) 24516
Answer: B Explanation: Code 24515 reports closed treatment of distal humerus fracture without internal fixation. Question 29. When coding an unlisted procedure on the hand, which CPT code should be used? A) 29999 B) 29990 C) 29991 D) 29992 Answer: A Explanation: Code 29999 is an unlisted procedure, upper extremity, hand. Question 30. Which CPT code is used for a simple excision of a subcutaneous cyst measuring 0.8 cm on the trunk? A) 11400 B) 11401 C) 11402 D) 11403 Answer: A Explanation: Code 11400 is for excision of benign lesion ≤0.5 cm; however, the cyst is 0.8 cm, so the appropriate code is 11401; but the question asks “simple excision” - the correct answer should be 11401. Since 11401 is not listed, the nearest appropriate code is 11401; adjust answer: Answer: B. Explanation: Code 11401 covers excision of benign lesions 0.6‑1.0 cm. Question 31. A patient undergoes a nasal septoplasty with turbinoplasty. Which CPT code best represents the combined procedure?
Answer: A Explanation: Modifier ‑24 denotes an unrelated evaluation and management service by the same physician during a postoperative period; however, the question asks "different day but related" – the correct modifier for a related procedure performed on a different day is ‑59. Since the options do not include ‑59, the closest is ‑24 for a separate service. Answer: A. Question 35. A surgeon places a percutaneous endovascular stent in the femoral artery. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 37224 B) 37225 C) 37226 D) 37227 Answer: B Explanation: Code 37225 reports endovascular placement of a stent graft in the peripheral artery. Question 36. Which CPT code is used for a simple excision of a malignant melanoma of the skin measuring 1.5 cm? A) 11641 B) 11642 C) 11643 D) 11644 Answer: B
Explanation: Code 11642 is for excision of malignant melanoma, 1.01‑2.0 cm. Question 37. When coding a total shoulder arthroplasty with cemented components, which CPT code applies? A) 23410 B) 23420 C) 23430 D) 23440 Answer: B Explanation: Code 23420 reports total shoulder arthroplasty, with or without prosthetic components, cemented. Question 38. A patient undergoes a thoracic epidural catheter placement for postoperative analgesia. Which CPT code should be reported? A) 62320 B) 62321 C) 62322 D) 62323 Answer: A Explanation: Code 62320 is for insertion of thoracic or lumbar epidural catheter. Question 39. Which CPT code describes a simple excision of a lipoma of the subcutaneous tissue measuring 3 cm on the abdomen? A) 19120 B) 19125 C) 19130 D) 19135
Answer: A Explanation: Codes 92980‑92984 cover PTCA with or without stent placement in coronary arteries. Question 43. Which CPT code is used for a simple repair of a laceration on the cheek measuring 1.5 cm? A) 12001 B) 12002 C) 12004 D) 12005 Answer: B Explanation: Code 12002 is for simple repair of facial (cheek) laceration ≤5 cm. Question 44. When coding a laparoscopic adrenalectomy, which CPT code is appropriate? A) 60540 B) 60542 C) 60544 D) 60545 Answer: A Explanation: Code 60540 reports laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Question 45. Which modifier should be used when a procedure is performed on a different anatomical site than the primary procedure, but on the same day? A) - 59 B) - 51 C) - 62
Answer: A Explanation: Modifier ‑59 denotes a distinct procedural service performed on a different site or at a different time. Question 46. A surgeon performs a simple excision of a basal cell carcinoma on the ear measuring 0.7 cm. Which CPT code applies? A) 11640 B) 11641 C) 11642 D) 11643 Answer: B Explanation: Code 11641 is for excision of basal cell carcinoma, 0.6‑1.0 cm. Question 47. Which CPT code is used for placement of a ureteral stent via cystoscopy? A) 52332 B) 52333 C) 52334 D) 52335 Answer: B Explanation: Code 52333 reports cystoscopic placement of ureteral stent. Question 48. A patient undergoes a simple excision of a dermoid cyst of the ovary via laparoscopy. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 58661 B) 58662 C) 58663
Answer: A Explanation: Code 11730 reports simple excision of pilonidal cyst, single lesion. Question 52. A patient undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy with removal of tubes only (salpingectomy). Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 58570 B) 58571 C) 58572 D) 58573 Answer: A Explanation: Code 58570 reports total abdominal hysterectomy with removal of tubes only. Question 53. Which CPT code reports a simple repair of a 3 cm laceration on the forearm? A) 12031 B) 12032 C) 12033 D) 12034 Answer: B Explanation: Code 12032 is for simple repair of forearm ≤10 cm. Question 54. A surgeon performs a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the femoral artery without stent placement. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 37224 B) 37225 C) 37226 D) 37227 Answer: A
Explanation: Code 37224 reports percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of peripheral vessel without stent. Question 55. Which CPT code is used for a simple excision of a 1.2 cm sebaceous cyst on the neck? A) 11400 B) 11401 C) 11402 D) 11403 Answer: B Explanation: Code 11401 covers excision of benign lesion 0.6‑1.0 cm; the cyst is 1.2 cm, so the correct code is 11402. Answer: C. Explanation: Code 11402 is for lesions 1.1‑2.0 cm. Question 56. A patient receives a diagnostic upper endoscopy (EGD) with biopsy of a gastric ulcer. Which CPT code is appropriate? A) 43235 B) 43239 C) 43241 D) 43244 Answer: B Explanation: Code 43239 reports upper endoscopy with biopsy. Question 57. Which CPT code is used for a simple repair of a 8 cm laceration on the leg? A) 12051 B) 12052 C) 12053 D) 12054