Download NWCA ICD-10-PCS Coding Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. In ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS, which Section code is used for procedures performed on the cardiovascular system? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 Answer: A Explanation: Section “0” represents the Medical and Surgical section, which includes cardiovascular procedures. Question 2. What is the Root Operation for a procedure that removes a portion of a lung? A) Resection B) Excision C) Extraction D) Destruction Answer: B Explanation: Excision is defined as cutting out or off a portion of a body part, such as a partial lung removal. Question 3. Which approach character indicates a procedure performed through the natural opening of the body? A) Open (0) B) Percutaneous (3) C) Via Natural or Artificial Opening (4) D) Endoscopic (2) Answer: C
Explanation: Character “4” denotes an approach via a natural or artificial opening (e.g., transvaginal). Question 4. For a coronary artery bypass graft using a saphenous vein, which Device character is appropriate? A) No Device (0) B) Autologous Tissue Substitute (J) C) Synthetic Substitute (K) D) Graft (H) Answer: D Explanation: Character “H” specifies a graft device, used for bypass procedures. Question 5. Which Qualifier character is used for a diagnostic imaging procedure that includes contrast? A) No Qualifier (0) B) With Contrast (B) C) Without Contrast (1) D) Limited (5) Answer: B Explanation: Qualifier “B” indicates the use of contrast material during the imaging study. Question 6. In ICD‑ 10 ‑CM, which code would you assign for a principal diagnosis of “Acute myocardial infarction, STEMI, anterior wall”? A) I21. B) I21. C) I21. D) I21.
C) Unchanged – condition unchanged since admission. D) Unverified – not yet verified by the physician. Answer: A Explanation: “U” indicates that the documentation does not allow the coder to determine POA status. Question 10. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS Root Operation describes “the removal of a foreign body from a body part”? A) Extraction B) Removal C) Resection D) Excision Answer: A Explanation: Extraction is defined as removing a device or foreign body from a body part. Question 11. A patient undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which Approach character is correct? A) Open (0) B) Percutaneous Endoscopic (2) C) Percutaneous (3) D) Via Natural Orifice (4) Answer: B Explanation: Laparoscopic procedures are coded with Approach character “2” for Percutaneous Endoscopic. Question 12. Which Body System character corresponds to the “Nervous System” in ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS? A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Answer: D Explanation: Body System character “4” designates the Nervous System. Question 13. For a total hip replacement using a metal prosthesis, which Root Operation is appropriate? A) Replacement B) Revision C) Insertion D) Resection Answer: A Explanation: Replacement denotes putting in a new device that performs the same function as the removed part. Question 14. In the Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS), the “Principal Diagnosis” is defined as: A) The condition that led to the longest stay. B) The condition established after admission that caused the greatest resource use. C) The condition established after admission that caused the admission. D) Any comorbid condition present on admission. Answer: C Explanation: The principal diagnosis is the condition established after admission that caused the admission.
Explanation: Destruction involves using energy to destroy tissue, such as laser ablation. Question 18. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS code would correctly represent “Insertion of a ventricular assist device, open approach”? A) 0JH0XZZ B) 0JH00ZZ C) 0JH03ZZ D) 0JH04ZZ Answer: B Explanation: Section 0 (Medical and Surgical), Body System 9 (Heart), Root Operation 0 (Insertion), Body Part 0 (Ventricular Assist Device), Approach 0 (Open), Device 0 (No Device), Qualifier Z (No qualifier). Question 19. In ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS, the Qualifier “Z” means: A) No qualifier needed. B) With contrast. C) Limited. D) Unspecified. Answer: A Explanation: “Z” indicates that no qualifier applies to the procedure. Question 20. For a patient with “Stage 3 chronic kidney disease,” which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code is appropriate? A) N18. B) N18. C) N18. D) N18.
Answer: A Explanation: N18.3 specifies chronic kidney disease, stage 3. Question 21. Which of the following is NOT a valid ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS Body Part character for the “Upper Extremities”? A) 0 – Hand, fingers, and wrist. B) 1 – Shoulder. C) 5 – Elbow. D) 7 – Scapula. Answer: D Explanation: Scapula is coded under the “Shoulder” (1) or “Upper Extremity” but not as a separate character “7”. Question 22. A “Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube placement” uses which Root Operation? A) Insertion B) Placement C) Insertion (same as Placement) D) Replacement Answer: A Explanation: In ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS, inserting a tube is coded as Insertion (Root Operation 0). Question 23. Which MCC is associated with a DRG for “Pneumonia with mechanical ventilation > hours”? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. B) Acute respiratory failure requiring ventilation >96 hours.
B) Autologous Tissue Substitute (J) C) Synthetic Substitute (K) D) Graft (H) Answer: C Explanation: Synthetic grafts are coded with Device character “K”. Question 27. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code best captures “Uncontrolled type 2 diabetes mellitus with ketoacidosis”? A) E11. B) E11. C) E11. D) E11. Answer: B Explanation: E11.65 denotes type 2 diabetes with ketoacidosis. Question 28. For a “Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)”, which Root Operation is appropriate? A) Replacement B) Insertion C) Revision D) Resection Answer: A Explanation: TAVR replaces the native aortic valve with a prosthetic device. Question 29. Which of the following is a valid qualifier for “Imaging” procedures that indicates “limited” study?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 5
D) B
Answer: C Explanation: Qualifier “5” denotes a limited imaging study. Question 30. In ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS, the Section code “3” corresponds to which category? A) Medical and Surgical B) Obstetrics C) Imaging D) Measurement and Monitoring Answer: C Explanation: Section “3” is for Imaging procedures. Question 31. The POA indicator “W” is used when: A) The provider is unable to determine POA status. B) The diagnosis is a known complication of care. C) The diagnosis is present on admission but later resolved. D) The diagnosis is a wound that occurred after admission. Answer: B Explanation: “W” indicates a diagnosis that is a known complication of care. Question 32. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code is used for “Acute respiratory failure, unspecified whether with hypoxia or hypercapnia”?
Question 35. The ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS Body System character “ 5 ” designates which system? A) Musculoskeletal System B) Respiratory System C) Digestive System D) Genitourinary System Answer: B Explanation: Body System “5” corresponds to the Respiratory System. Question 36. Which of the following is an example of a “Complication/Comorbidity (CC)” but NOT an MCC? A) Acute myocardial infarction with cardiogenic shock. B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (moderate). C) Acute renal failure requiring dialysis. D) Septicemia. Answer: B Explanation: Moderate COPD is a CC; it does not meet MCC criteria. Question 37. In ICD‑ 10 ‑CM, the code “Z38.00” indicates which of the following? A) Liveborn infant, unspecified gender. B) Stillbirth. C) Liveborn infant, twin, male. D) Liveborn infant, singleton, female. Answer: A Explanation: Z38.00 is for liveborn infant, unspecified gender, from a single birth.
Question 38. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS Root Operation would you assign to “Debridement of necrotic tissue from a pressure ulcer”? A) Excision B) Resection C) Drainage D) Removal Answer: A Explanation: Excision (Root Operation 2) is used for cutting out necrotic tissue. Question 39. Which approach character is used for a “Robotic‑assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy”? A) Open (0) B) Percutaneous Endoscopic (2) C) Percutaneous (3) D) Via Natural Orifice (4) Answer: B Explanation: Robotic‑assisted laparoscopy is still a percutaneous endoscopic approach (character 2). Question 40. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code “M17.11” refers to: A) Unilateral primary osteoarthritis, right knee. B) Bilateral primary osteoarthritis, left knee. C) Unilateral primary osteoarthritis, left knee. D) Bilateral primary osteoarthritis, right knee. Answer: C Explanation: M17.11 denotes primary osteoarthritis of the left knee, unilateral.
Explanation: Insertion (Root Operation 0) is used for placing a PICC line. Question 44. The ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code “O80” is used for which obstetric condition? A) Single spontaneous delivery. B) Multiple gestation delivery. C) Forceps delivery. D) Cesarean delivery. Answer: A Explanation: O80 denotes a single spontaneous vaginal delivery. Question 45. Which approach character indicates a “Transoral” procedure? A) Open (0) B) Percutaneous (3) C) Via Natural Orifice (4) D) Percutaneous Endoscopic (2) Answer: C Explanation: “Via Natural Orifice” (character 4) includes transoral approaches. Question 46. For a “Total colectomy with ileostomy creation”, which Qualifier character is required? A) No Qualifier (0) B) With Stoma (5) C) With Anastomosis (9) D) With Drain (1) Answer: B
Explanation: Qualifier “5” specifies creation of a stoma (ileostomy). Question 47. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code captures “Acute pancreatitis, alcoholic”? A) K85. B) K85. C) K85. D) K85. Answer: A Explanation: K85.2 is for alcoholic acute pancreatitis. Question 48. In ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS, the Body System character “ 9 ” represents which system? A) Musculoskeletal System B) Cardiovascular System C) Nervous System D) Respiratory System Answer: B Explanation: Body System “9” denotes the Cardiovascular System. Question 49. Which Root Operation is defined as “the removal of a device from a body part”? A) Extraction B) Removal C) Revision D) Replacement Answer: B
Explanation: Removing an existing tube is coded as Removal (Root Operation 4). Question 53. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code corresponds to “Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with acute exacerbation”? A) J44. B) J44. C) J44. D) J44. Answer: B Explanation: J44.1 is for COPD with acute exacerbation. Question 54. In the DRG system, a “CC” adds how many relative weight points compared to a case with no complications? A) None – CC does not affect weight. B) One point. C) Two points. D) Varies by DRG. Answer: D Explanation: The impact of a CC on relative weight varies depending on the specific DRG. Question 55. Which approach character is appropriate for a “Transbronchial lung biopsy performed via bronchoscope”? A) Open (0) B) Percutaneous (3) C) Percutaneous Endoscopic (2) D) Via Natural Orifice (4)
Answer: C Explanation: Bronchoscopic procedures are percutaneous endoscopic (character 2). Question 56. The ICD‑ 10 ‑PCS Body Part character “ 0 ” within the Musculoskeletal System refers to which region? A) Shoulder B) Upper arm C) Hand, fingers, and wrist D) Hip Answer: C Explanation: “0” under Musculoskeletal (Body System 0) designates hand, fingers, and wrist. Question 57. Which ICD‑ 10 ‑CM code captures “Unspecified viral hepatitis”? A) B15. B) B19. C) B18. D) B20. Answer: B Explanation: B19.9 is for unspecified viral hepatitis. Question 58. For a “Repair of a traumatic laceration of the scalp”, which Root Operation is used? A) Resection B) Repair C) Excision D) Revision
