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OBGYN exam multiple choice question1.docx
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Your supervising physician tells you the patient has a BI-RADS score of 3. What should you tell the patient? A) her results are negative B) some suspicious abnormalities were found and a biopsy is required C) the results are inconclusive D) results are probably benign, but short interval follow up is suggested E) the results are benign and the patient should follow up as scheduled - correct answer D You are doing a CBE and note some dimpling on inspection as well as an area of induration on palpation. What are you suspecting? A) invasive ductal carcinoma B) Paget's disease C) Polycystic breast disease D) Tuners Syndrome - correct answer A In which of the following cases would emergency contraception be indicated? A) a women with slight vaginal spotting post coitus B) a woman who had unintended intercourse C) a women trying for her 3rd pregnancy D) a woman who is currently on depo provera - correct answer B which of the following is not a possible treatment for DUB? A) D&C B) endometrial ablation C) Depo Provera injection D) Levonorgestrel IUD
E) hysterectomy - correct answer C the smaller version of a diaphragm is known as... - correct answer cervical cap what are some of the disadvantages of a cervical cap? - correct answer higher risk of cervicitis and TSS high degree of displacement & failure Which of the following side effects is considered "normal" when starting oral contraceptives? A) lower leg pain and cramping B) changes in vision C) breakthrough bleeding D) chest pain - correct answer C other common sxs include: nausea amenorrhea hyperpigmentation on the face weight gain bloating headache breast tenderness GnRH agonists can be used to treat extreme cases of which disorder? A) Paget Disease B) Pre menstrual dysphoric disorder C) post partum depression D) ductal carcinoma in situ - correct answer B
which of the following would you NOT prescribe for a patient who had an abnormal cervical biopsy 6 weeks ago? A) female condom B) diaphragm C) oral contraceptives D) male condom - correct answer B diaphragms are CI in pts with abnormal cervical bipopsy in last 12 weeks, latex allergies, history of TSS, concurrent pelvic infection which of the following contraceptive methods has a high degree of displacement/failure and is associated with cervicitis? A) oral contraceptives B) female condom C) cervical cap D) male condom - correct answer C what are the 2 commonly used spermicides? - correct answer nonoxynol-9, octoxynol- T or F? the patient will still ovulate when on copper T? - correct answer TRUE T or F? the pt will still ovulate when on mirena? - correct answer FALSE In this type of IUD, ovulation is not affected, but implantation is inhibited. A) mirena B) copper T C) nonoxynol- D)spermicide - correct answer B
Mirena releases what? A) estrogen B) FSH C) LH D) progestin - correct answer D which of the following contraceptive methods protects against ectopic pregnancy? A) copper T IUD B) diaphragm C) spermicidal lube D) mirena IUD - correct answer D A woman has been pregnant 6 times, but has only successfully delivered 5, as she had 1 abortion. 1 of her children was delivered at 16 weeks. What is her GPFPAL scale rating? A) 6-5-5-1-1- B) 6-5-4-1-1- C) 6-5-4-1-1- D) 6-5-4-2-1-5 - correct answer C what is the time frame for a preterm pregnancy? A) 18-34 weeks B) 18-36 weeks C) 20-38 weeks D) 20-36 weeks - correct answer D A pregnancy is considered full term when it is over __ weeks. A) 32 B) 34 C) 36
D) paget syndrome - correct answer C when does premenstrual syndrome occur? A) follicle phase B) ovulation phase C) first half of luteal phase D) second half of luteal phase - correct answer D the decrease in which hormone is responsible for the symptoms associated with PMS? A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) FSH - correct answer B A 22 yo female patient who has been struggling with PMS for several years presents to your clinic for evaluation. You should tell her what regarding her symptoms of PMS? A) they will resolve around the age of 30 B) they will resolve once she has been on birth control for at least 2 weeks C) they should resolve post menopause D) as long as she abstains from sex, the symptoms will resolve - correct answer C what is the proposed mechanism for PMS? A) serotoninergic dysregulation B) dopaminergic autoregulation C) norepinephrine decrease D) increased serotonin - correct answer A serotonin is decreased in the progesterone dominant luteal phase
In addition to meeting the criteria for PMS, which of the following is not a symptom required to diagnose PMDD? A) irritability B) headaches C) tension D) mood lability E) dysphoria - correct answer B which of the following is not a disorder that should be ruled out before diagnosing PMDD? A) bipolar disorder B) depression C) pre menstrual syndrome D) thyroid disorder E) irritable bowel syndrome - correct answer C which of the following is NOT one of the herbal preps that can be used to treat PMDD? A) evening primrose oil B) chaste berry fruit C) lavender essential oil D) St. Johns wort - correct answer C How many consecutive cycles must PMS occur in for a diagnosis to occur? A) 4 or more B) 3 or more C) 2 or more D) as long as the woman is depressed, it can be diagnosed - correct answer C
Reduction in frequence of menses A) menorrhagia B) oligomenorrhea C) metorrhagia D) polymenorrhea - correct answer B Frequent menstrual bleeding that is excessive and irregular in amount and duration: A) menorrhagia B) amenorrhea C) menometorrhagia D) polymenorrhea - correct answer C Between the ages of 20-39, women should have a clinical breast exam how often? A) annually B) every 1-3 years C) every 5 years D) 2x per year - correct answer B In a high risk woman, monthly breast self exams should start between which ages? A) 12-14 years B) 16-18 yrs C) 18-20 yrs D) 20-22 yrs - correct answer C A 15 year old girl presents to your clinic for a routine check. She tells you that her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 30. At what age will you recommend that she receives a mammogram? A) 30 B) 25
D) do one in the office now - correct answer C In which anatomical locations does breast cancer typically originate? A) ducts B) epithelium C) lobules D) nipples E) A + C - correct answer E breast cancer typically originates in the ducts and lobules