Openstream CRM IBM Full Stack Software Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam, Exams of Technology

Tests full-stack competencies: HTML/CSS/JavaScript, React, Node.js, Express, Python, databases (SQL & NoSQL), API development, authentication, DevOps fundamentals, cloud deployment, and debugging. Includes hands-on coding scenarios, architecture questions, and system design challenges.

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 01/07/2026

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Openstream CRM IBM Full Stack Software
Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam
**Question 1.** Which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) primarily focuses on
defining system requirements and documenting functional specifications?
A) Implementation
B) Analysis
C) Deployment
D) Maintenance
**Answer:** B
**Explanation:** The Analysis phase involves gathering and detailing user requirements, creating
functional specifications that guide subsequent design and development.
**Question 2.** In Agile methodology, what artifact represents a prioritized list of work items for a
sprint?
A) Burndown chart
B) Product backlog
C) Sprint backlog
D) Definition of Done
**Answer:** C
**Explanation:** The sprint backlog contains the tasks selected from the product backlog for the
current sprint, prioritized and ready for execution.
**Question 3.** Which cloud service model provides a platform for developers to build, test, and deploy
applications without managing underlying infrastructure?
A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) DaaS
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Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Question 1. Which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) primarily focuses on defining system requirements and documenting functional specifications? A) Implementation B) Analysis C) Deployment D) Maintenance Answer: B Explanation: The Analysis phase involves gathering and detailing user requirements, creating functional specifications that guide subsequent design and development. Question 2. In Agile methodology, what artifact represents a prioritized list of work items for a sprint? A) Burndown chart B) Product backlog C) Sprint backlog D) Definition of Done Answer: C Explanation: The sprint backlog contains the tasks selected from the product backlog for the current sprint, prioritized and ready for execution. Question 3. Which cloud service model provides a platform for developers to build, test, and deploy applications without managing underlying infrastructure? A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) DaaS

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Answer: B Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) abstracts away hardware and OS management, allowing developers to focus on code and application logic. Question 4. In a public cloud deployment, which of the following statements is true? A) Resources are exclusively used by a single organization. B) The cloud provider offers services over the internet to multiple customers. C) The organization must maintain its own data center. D) Data never leaves the organization’s premises. Answer: B Explanation: Public clouds are shared environments where the provider offers services to many customers over the internet. Question 5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing? A) On-demand self-service B) Broad network access C) Fixed hardware provisioning D) Rapid elasticity Answer: C Explanation: Cloud computing provides elastic resources that can be provisioned dynamically, not fixed hardware. Question 6. Which HTML5 element is most appropriate for marking up a navigation menu? A) B)

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Question 9. In JavaScript, which keyword is used to declare a block‑scoped variable that cannot be reassigned? A) var B) let C) const D) static Answer: C Explanation: const creates a read‑only binding; the variable identifier cannot be reassigned after initialization. Question 10. Which method adds an event listener to a DOM element in JavaScript? A) addEvent() B) on() C) attachEvent() D) addEventListener() Answer: D Explanation: addEventListener is the standard method for registering event handlers on DOM nodes. Question 11. What does the async keyword before a function declaration indicate? A) The function runs synchronously. B) The function returns a Promise automatically. C) The function cannot use await. D) The function must be called with a callback. Answer: B

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Explanation: An async function always returns a Promise, allowing the use of await inside it. Question 12. Which HTTP status code indicates that the client must authenticate to gain network access? A) 200 B) 301 C) 401 D) 403 Answer: C Explanation: 401 Unauthorized signals that authentication is required and has failed or not been provided. Question 13. In React, which Hook is used to perform side effects such as data fetching after a component mounts? A) useState B) useEffect C) useContext D) useReducer Answer: B Explanation: useEffect runs after render and can be configured to run on mount, update, or unmount. Question 14. What is the purpose of the key prop in a list of React elements? A) To style the element. B) To uniquely identify each element for efficient re‑rendering.

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

B) Forking Workflow C) Centralized Workflow D) Trunk‑Based Development Answer: A Explanation: Git Flow defines main/develop branches and uses feature, release, and hotfix branches. Question 18. What does a Pull Request (PR) represent in GitHub? A) A direct push to the main branch. B) A request to merge changes from one branch into another after review. C) An automatic conflict resolver. D) A way to delete a branch. Answer: B Explanation: PRs enable code review and discussion before merging changes. Question 19. Which command creates a new branch called feature/login and switches to it? A) git branch feature/login B) git checkout - b feature/login C) git switch feature/login D) git merge feature/login Answer: B Explanation: git checkout - b creates and checks out the new branch in one step. Question 20. In Node.js, which module provides utilities for working with file and directory paths?

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

A) http B) fs C) path D) url Answer: C Explanation: The path module offers methods for handling file system paths across platforms. Question 21. Which command installs a package and saves it as a production dependency in package.json? A) npm install lodash --save-dev B) npm install lodash --save C) npm i lodash - D D) npm i lodash --production Answer: B Explanation: --save (default in npm v5+) adds the package to the dependencies section. Question 22. In Express, which method defines a route that responds to HTTP GET requests at /api/users? A) app.post('/api/users', ...) B) app.get('/api/users', ...) C) app.route('/api/users').get(...) D) Both B and C Answer: D Explanation: Both app.get and app.route().get can define GET handlers for a path.

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Answer: A Explanation: def defines a function; if no return statement is used, Python returns None by default. Question 26. Which Python library provides data structures and tools for numerical computation? A) Pandas B) NumPy C) Matplotlib D) Requests Answer: B Explanation: NumPy offers arrays, mathematical functions, and linear algebra capabilities. Question 27. Which statement correctly creates a list comprehension that squares numbers 1 through 5? A) [x**2 for x in range(1,6)] B) {x**2 for x in range(1,6)} C) (x**2 for x in range(1,6)) D) list(x**2 for x in range(1,6)) Answer: A Explanation: List comprehensions use square brackets; the expression generates [1, 4, 9, 16, 25]. Question 28. In SQL, which clause is used to filter rows after grouping? A) WHERE B) HAVING

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

C) ORDER BY

D) GROUP BY

Answer: B Explanation: HAVING filters aggregated results, whereas WHERE filters before aggregation. Question 29. Which SQL command adds a new column age INT to an existing table employees? A) ALTER TABLE employees ADD COLUMN age INT; B) MODIFY employees ADD age INT; C) UPDATE employees SET age = INT; D) INSERT INTO employees (age) VALUES (INT); Answer: A Explanation: ALTER TABLE … ADD COLUMN modifies the table schema to include a new column. Question 30. Which of the following is a NoSQL database type that stores data as key‑value pairs? A) PostgreSQL B) MongoDB C) Redis D) Oracle Answer: C Explanation: Redis is an in‑memory key‑value store, a type of NoSQL database. Question 31. In Django, which file defines URL patterns for an application? A) models.py B) views.py

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Question 34. Which IBM Watson service can be used to add natural language understanding capabilities to a Flask application? A) Watson Assistant B) Watson Discovery C) Watson Natural Language Understanding (NLU) D) Watson Speech to Text Answer: C Explanation: NLU analyzes text for entities, sentiment, keywords, and more, suitable for Flask integration. Question 35. What is the primary advantage of containerization over traditional virtual machines? A) Containers provide hardware-level isolation. B) Containers share the host OS kernel, resulting in lower overhead. C) Containers require a hypervisor. D) Containers cannot be orchestrated. Answer: B Explanation: Containers share the host kernel, making them lightweight and faster to start compared to VMs. Question 36. Which Docker command builds an image from a Dockerfile located in the current directory and tags it as myapp:latest? A) docker run - t myapp:latest. B) docker build - t myapp:latest. C) docker create - t myapp:latest. D) docker compose build myapp:latest

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Answer: B Explanation: docker build - t builds an image and assigns the tag. Question 37. In Kubernetes, what is the purpose of a Service object? A) To store container images. B) To define persistent storage. C) To expose a set of Pods as a network service. D) To schedule Pods on nodes. Answer: C Explanation: A Service provides a stable IP/DNS and load balancing across Pods. Question 38. Which YAML field defines the number of desired replicas for a Deployment? A) spec.replicas B) metadata.replicas C) status.replicas D) spec.containers.replicas Answer: A Explanation: spec.replicas specifies how many pod instances the Deployment should maintain. Question 39. What does the term “microservice” refer to in modern application architecture? A) A single monolithic codebase. B) A small, independently deployable service that performs a specific business function. C) A database schema design pattern. D) An OS-level virtualization technique.

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

B) Ansible C) Chef D) Puppet Answer: A Explanation: Terraform supports IBM Cloud provider, enabling declarative infrastructure provisioning. Question 43. What is the main security concern when storing passwords in a database? A) Using a reversible encryption algorithm. B) Storing passwords in plain text. C) Hashing passwords with a strong, salted hash function. D) Storing passwords in a separate table. Answer: B Explanation: Storing passwords in plain text exposes them to theft; they should be salted and hashed. Question 44. Which HTTP header helps protect against Cross‑Site Scripting (XSS) attacks? A) Content-Type B) X-Frame-Options C) X-XSS-Protection D) Authorization Answer: C Explanation: X-XSS-Protection enables the browser’s built‑in XSS filter.

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

Question 45. In React, what does the useReducer Hook provide that useState does not? A) Ability to manage complex state logic with a reducer function. B) Automatic persistence to local storage. C) Direct manipulation of the DOM. D) Server‑side rendering capabilities. Answer: A Explanation: useReducer is suited for state transitions that depend on previous state, using a reducer pattern similar to Redux. Question 46. Which command lists all remote branches in a Git repository? A) git branch - a B) git remote - v C) git branch - r D) git show-branch Answer: C Explanation: git branch - r displays branches that exist on remote repositories. Question 47. In Docker, what is the purpose of the ENTRYPOINT instruction in a Dockerfile? A) To set environment variables. B) To specify the default command that runs when the container starts. C) To expose ports to the host. D) To copy files into the image. Answer: B

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

D) GET

Answer: D Explanation: GET requests should be read‑only and have no side effects on server data. Question 51. Which React feature allows you to share stateful logic between components without using higher‑order components? A) Render props B) Context API C) Hooks D) Fragments Answer: C Explanation: Hooks such as useState and useEffect enable reusable logic across functional components. Question 52. In Git, what does the command git revert do? A) Deletes the specified commit from history. B) Creates a new commit that undoes the changes introduced by the specified commit. C) Moves the HEAD pointer to the specified commit. D) Resets the working directory to the specified commit. Answer: B Explanation: git revert adds a new commit that reverses the changes, preserving history. Question 53. Which SQL clause is used to sort the result set of a query? A) GROUP BY

Developer Professional Certificate Practice Exam

B) ORDER BY

C) HAVING

D) LIMIT

Answer: B Explanation: ORDER BY arranges rows based on one or more columns. Question 54. In relational databases, what is a foreign key used for? A) To uniquely identify each row in a table. B) To enforce referential integrity between two tables. C) To index columns for faster search. D) To store large binary objects. Answer: B Explanation: A foreign key references a primary key in another table, ensuring related data stays consistent. Question 55. Which of the following is a benefit of serverless architecture? A) Full control over underlying OS. B) Fixed provisioning of resources. C) Automatic scaling based on demand. D) Persistent long‑running connections. Answer: C Explanation: Serverless platforms automatically scale functions or containers in response to load.