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Question 1. Which component of the CPU is primarily responsible for performing arithmetic and logical operations? A) Control Unit B) Instruction Register C) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) D) Cache Memory Answer: C Explanation: The ALU executes arithmetic (addition, subtraction) and logical (AND, OR) operations on data. Question 2. In the instruction cycle, which stage determines the operation to be performed? A) Fetch B) Decode C) Execute D) Write-back Answer: B Explanation: During the Decode stage, the CPU interprets the fetched instruction to identify the required operation. Question 3. Which of the following best describes a multicore processor? A) A processor with multiple separate CPUs on different motherboards B) A single CPU die that contains two or more independent processing cores C) A CPU that can only execute one thread at a time D) A processor that uses only software virtualization
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Answer: B Explanation: Multicore CPUs integrate multiple cores on a single die, allowing parallel execution of threads. Question 4. What is the primary advantage of virtualization support in modern CPUs? A) Increased clock speed B) Ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously on the same hardware C) Larger physical memory capacity D) Enhanced graphics rendering Answer: B Explanation: Virtualization extensions (e.g., Intel VT-x, AMD-V) enable efficient isolation of multiple guest OSes on a single physical machine. Question 5. Which type of memory loses its stored data when power is removed? A) ROM B) Flash memory C) RAM D) EEPROM Answer: C Explanation: RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile; it requires power to retain information. Question 6. Which memory technology is non-volatile, directly addressable, and used for firmware storage?
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Question 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of a solid-state drive (SSD) using the NVMe interface? A) Uses spinning magnetic platters B) Communicates over the SATA III bus C) Leverages the PCIe bus for higher throughput D) Requires a separate power connector for each drive bay Answer: C Explanation: NVMe SSDs use the PCIe bus, delivering greater bandwidth and lower latency than SATA. Question 10. What does the acronym ATX refer to in motherboard design? A) Advanced Technology eXtended, a form factor standard B) Automatic Transfer eXecution, a BIOS feature C) Asynchronous Transfer eXtension, a bus protocol D) Audio-Video Transfer eXchange, a connector type Answer: A Explanation: ATX defines dimensions, mounting points, and connector placement for motherboards and cases. Question 11. Which bus type provides the highest data transfer rate for modern graphics cards? A) PCI B) PCIe 4.0 x C) USB 3.
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D) Thunderbolt 2 Answer: B Explanation: PCIe 4.0 x16 offers up to 64 GB/s bi-directional throughput, surpassing older PCI and USB standards. Question 12. In BIOS/UEFI configuration, what is the purpose of Secure Boot? A) To overclock the CPU automatically B) To prevent the loading of unsigned bootloaders and drivers C) To increase RAM frequency D) To enable legacy operating systems only Answer: B Explanation: Secure Boot validates the digital signatures of boot components, protecting against rootkits. Question 13. A PSU is rated at 80 PLUS Gold. What does this indicate? A) The PSU can deliver a maximum of 80 W of power B) The PSU operates at 90 % efficiency at 50 % load C) The PSU is certified for gold-plated connectors D) The PSU includes a built-in UPS battery Answer: B Explanation: 80 PLUS Gold certification guarantees at least 87 % efficiency at 20 % load, 90 % at 50 % load, and 87 % at 100 % load. Question 14. Which cooling method is most effective for a high-performance desktop CPU?
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Question 17. Which file system is native to modern macOS installations? A) NTFS B) ext C) FAT D) APFS Answer: D Explanation: Apple File System (APFS) is optimized for SSDs and provides strong encryption and snapshots. Question 18. In Windows, which file system supports file permissions, encryption, and compression natively? A) FAT B) NTFS C) exFAT D) ReFS Answer: B Explanation: NTFS includes ACLs for permissions, EFS for encryption, and file-level compression. Question 19. Which component runs in kernel mode and has direct access to hardware resources? A) User application B. System DLLs loaded in user space C) Device driver
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D. Command-line interpreter (shell) Answer: C Explanation: Device drivers operate in kernel mode to interact directly with hardware. Question 20. During OS installation, which step creates the logical divisions on a hard drive? A) Formatting B) Partitioning C. Defragmentation D. Encryption Answer: B Explanation: Partitioning defines separate logical sections (partitions) on a physical disk. Question 21. Which Windows utility is used to manage device drivers and resolve compatibility issues? A) Disk Management B) Device Manager C) Event Viewer D) Task Scheduler Answer: B Explanation: Device Manager displays installed drivers, allows updates, rollbacks, and disables devices. Question 22. What is the primary purpose of applying system updates?
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Explanation: The built-in compression feature creates ZIP archives for easier storage and transfer. Question 25. Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the hardware without a host OS? A) Type 1 (bare-metal) B) Type 2 (hosted) C) Container-based D) Emulation-only Answer: A Explanation: Type 1 hypervisors (e.g., VMware ESXi, Hyper-V) install directly on the server hardware. Question 26. In cloud computing, which service model provides the most control over the operating system and runtime? A) SaaS B) PaaS C) IaaS D) DaaS Answer: C Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offers virtual machines where users manage OS, middleware, and applications. Question 27. Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end reliability and flow control? A) Physical B) Data Link
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C) Transport D) Application Answer: C Explanation: The Transport layer (TCP) ensures reliable delivery, sequencing, and flow control. Question 28. Which protocol resolves human-readable domain names to IP addresses? A) DHCP B) DNS C) FTP D) SNMP Answer: B Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) maps domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. Question 29. An IPv4 address 192.168.10.0/24 belongs to which class of network? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D Answer: C Explanation: The /24 prefix indicates a Class C network with a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
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Answer: D Explanation: 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) uses 5 GHz and advanced modulation to reach up to 1.3 Gbps per stream. Question 33. What does a DHCP server provide to clients? A) DNS resolution only B) Static IP addresses only C) Dynamic IP address, subnet mask, gateway, and DNS information D) MAC address filtering rules Answer: C Explanation: DHCP dynamically assigns IP configuration parameters to network devices. Question 34. Which port number is associated with HTTPS traffic? A) 21 B) 25 C) 80 D) 443 Answer: D Explanation: HTTPS uses TCP port 443 for encrypted web traffic. Question 35. In a typical home network, which device performs Network Address Translation (NAT)? A) Switch B) Router C) Access point
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D) Modem Answer: B Explanation: Routers translate private internal IP addresses to a public address for Internet communication. Question 36. Which command-line tool displays the route that packets take to a destination host? A) ping B) ipconfig C) tracert (or traceroute) D) netstat Answer: C Explanation: Tracert/traceroute sends packets with increasing TTL values to reveal each hop along the path. Question 37. Which of the following is a common symptom of a DNS resolution failure? A) “Connection timed out” on ping B) “404 Not Found” error in the browser C) “Server not found” or “Unable to resolve host” message D) “Access denied” when opening a file share Answer: C Explanation: DNS failures prevent the conversion of a domain name to an IP, leading browsers to display “Server not found”. Question 38. Which type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and demands payment for decryption?
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Explanation: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher used for encrypting files and disks. Question 41. What is the primary purpose of a firewall? A) To scan for viruses on a local machine B) To block unauthorized network traffic based on predefined rules C) To provide backup and recovery services D) To manage user passwords Answer: B Explanation: Firewalls filter inbound and outbound traffic according to security policies. Question 42. Which VPN protocol uses SSL/TLS for secure tunneling? A) PPTP B) L2TP/IPsec C) OpenVPN D) GRE Answer: C Explanation: OpenVPN commonly employs SSL/TLS to encrypt traffic and authenticate peers. Question 43. In backup terminology, which method copies only files that have changed since the last full backup? A) Full backup B) Incremental backup C) Differential backup
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D) Mirror backup Answer: B Explanation: Incremental backups capture changes since the most recent backup of any type, reducing storage needs. Question 44. Which backup strategy provides the fastest restore time for a single file? A) Full backup only B) Incremental only C) Differential only D) Full + incremental Answer: A Explanation: A full backup contains a complete copy of the data, allowing immediate restoration without needing previous backups. Question 45. Which public key algorithm is commonly used for digital signatures and key exchange? A) AES B) DES C) RSA D) MD Answer: C Explanation: RSA is an asymmetric algorithm used for encryption, signatures, and key exchange. Question 46. What is a “cold site” in disaster recovery planning?
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Explanation: ipconfig shows IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. Question 49. In a help-desk scenario, which of the following is the most appropriate first step when a user reports “My computer is slow”? A) Immediately reinstall the operating system B) Ask the user to reboot the machine and observe task manager C) Delete all files on the system drive D) Upgrade the CPU without further analysis Answer: B Explanation: Restarting can clear temporary issues; checking task manager helps identify resource hogs before drastic actions. Question 50. Which keyboard shortcut copies selected text in most Windows applications? A) Ctrl + V B) Ctrl + C C) Ctrl + X D) Ctrl + Z Answer: B Explanation: Ctrl + C is the standard copy command. Question 51. In SQL, which keyword is used to retrieve unique records from a table? A) DISTINCT B) UNIQUE
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C) GROUP BY
D) HAVING
Answer: A Explanation: DISTINCT removes duplicate rows from the result set. Question 52. Which of the following best describes a primary key in a relational database? A) A column that can contain duplicate values B) A column that uniquely identifies each row and cannot be NULL C) A column that stores large binary objects D) A column used only for indexing performance Answer: B Explanation: Primary keys enforce uniqueness and non-null constraints. Question 53. Which document format is best suited for preserving formatting across platforms without requiring the original application? A) .txt B) .docx C) .pdf D) .rtf Answer: C Explanation: PDF retains layout, fonts, and graphics, ensuring consistent appearance on any device. Question 54. Which of the following is a legal restriction that governs the use of software under an End-User License Agreement (EULA)?
