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Geotechnical and Structural Engineering
Exam 2026/2027: 100 Practice Questions with
Answers for PE Civil, IBC 2024, ACI 318-22,
AISC 360, and ASCE 7- 22
Description: Master the 2026/2027 geotechnical and structural engineering exam with 100 expert-crafted practice questions covering foundation design, lateral earth pressures, seismic design, soil classification, and steel/concrete design. Includes complete answer explanations, IBC 2024 code references, and professional-grade content. Download now and pass with confidence!
PE Geotechnical & Structural Exam 2026/2027 - 100 Questions
Section A: Lateral Earth Pressures Question 1 Which of the following statements regarding lateral earth pressures is correct? A. The lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil passive pressure is considerably smaller than the lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil active pressure. B. The lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil passive pressure is slightly smaller than the lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil active pressure. C. The lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil passive pressure is slightly larger than the lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil active pressure. D. The lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil passive pressure is considerably larger than the lateral strain required to fully mobilize soil active pressure. Answer: D Explanation: Passive earth pressure mobilization requires substantially greater lateral strain compared to active pressure conditions. From fundamental mechanics, initiating movement from rest demands greater force than sustaining existing motion, which eliminates options A and B. Additionally, empirical data and theoretical relationships demonstrate that passive pressure coefficients typically range from two to four times active pressure coefficients, making option C incorrect. The Rankine and Coulomb earth pressure theories confirm that passive states develop only after significant soil displacement, typically 5-15% of wall height for loose sands, whereas active states mobilize at much smaller strains of approximately 0.1-0.5%.
D. Confirmation that faying surfaces are brought into firm contact during bolt installation E. Confirmation that the bolt installed has an AWS D1.1 certification Answer: C and D Explanation: IBC 2024 Section 1705.2.1 mandates that structural steel special inspections comply with AISC 360 quality assurance requirements. AISC 360 Chapter N specifically requires inspection of snug-tightened joints to verify proper fastener component utilization and ensure faying surfaces achieve firm contact during installation. While torque wrench calibration is important for installation procedures, it is not explicitly listed as a required inspection task under these provisions. Clamping force verification is typically associated with tension- controlled tightening methods rather than standard quality assurance inspections. Question 4 The figure shows two identical building footings supporting the same load but constructed on different soil profiles. Which statement is most accurate? A. Long-term settlement for Case I is less than Case II. B. Long-term settlement for Case II is less than Case I. C. Long-term settlements are identical for both cases. D. Settlement is not a concern for either case. Answer: A Explanation: Fine-grained soils, particularly clays, exhibit time-dependent consolidation settlement that continues over extended periods due to their low hydraulic conductivity and compressible nature. The difference in long-term settlement between the two cases stems from the fundamentally different consolidation characteristics of clay versus granular materials. Case I, representing a more favorable soil condition (typically granular or bearing stratum), experiences primarily immediate settlement with minimal long-term consolidation, whereas Case II (clay) undergoes significant time-dependent settlement.
Section C: Soil Classification and Testing Question 5 The most essential criteria for proper soil classification using the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) or AASHTO Soil Classification System are: A. Water content and soil density B. Atterberg limits and specific gravity C. Grain-size distribution and water content D. Grain-size distribution and Atterberg limits Answer: D Explanation: Both the USCS and AASHTO classification systems fundamentally rely on two primary criteria: grain-size distribution for coarse-grained soils and Atterberg limits for fine- grained soils. These parameters determine plasticity characteristics and particle size ranges, which are essential for proper classification. According to ASTM D2487 (USCS) and AASHTO M145, these two criteria establish the framework for all subsequent classification decisions, including group symbols, group names, and index properties. Question 6 The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is widely employed as a practical and economical method for obtaining which of the following? A. A measurement of soil compressibility expressed as a compression index B. A direct measurement of undrained shear strength C. An indirect indication of the relative density of cohesionless soils D. A direct measurement of the angle of internal friction
resistance, Type IV is formulated for low heat of hydration, and Type V provides high sulfate resistance, none of which are appropriate for rapid repair applications. Question 8 Fatigue in steel structures is most accurately characterized as: A. A reduction in strength due to cyclical loads B. Deformation under impact loads C. Deflection due to overload D. Expansion due to corrosion Answer: A Explanation: Steel fatigue represents the progressive and localized structural damage that occurs when materials are subjected to cyclic loading. According to AISC 360 Appendix 3, fatigue design provisions address the reduction in structural capacity resulting from repeated stress applications. The phenomenon is characterized by crack initiation and propagation under stress ranges below the ultimate tensile strength, ultimately leading to fracture. Impact loads, overload deflection, and corrosion-related expansion represent distinct failure mechanisms requiring separate consideration. Question 9 A backfill material described as a sand-silt clay mix with plastic fines classified as SM-SC under the Unified Soil Classification System. According to ASCE 7-22, the estimated design lateral soil load (psf per foot of depth) for relatively nonrigid walls is most nearly: A. 35 psf/ft B. 45 psf/ft C. 85 psf/ft
D. 100 psf/ft Answer: C Explanation: ASCE 7-22 Table 3.2-1 provides equivalent fluid pressures for lateral soil loads on retaining walls. For SM-SC materials (silty sand with clayey fines), the design lateral soil load for relatively nonrigid walls falls within the range of 75-90 psf per foot of depth. The value of 85 psf/ft represents the most appropriate selection for this soil classification, accounting for the plastic fines content that influences lateral earth pressure development. Question 10 Which of the following characterizes the typical failure mechanism of an over-reinforced concrete beam with a reinforcement ratio exceeding the balanced ratio? A. Steel yields, and large deflections and tensile cracks are observed prior to failure B. Concrete crushes, and large deflections and tensile cracks are observed prior to failure C. Steel yields, and the beam fails suddenly without warning D. Concrete crushes, and the beam fails suddenly without warning Answer: D Explanation: The failure mode of reinforced concrete beams depends on the reinforcement ratio relative to the balanced condition. Over-reinforced beams contain excessive tensile steel, preventing yielding before concrete reaches its ultimate compressive strain. This results in sudden, brittle failure due to concrete crushing in the compression zone, with limited warning through deformation or cracking. The balanced condition represents simultaneous attainment of steel yield strain and concrete crushing strain. Under-reinforced beams exhibit ductile failure with steel yielding first, providing visual warning through excessive deflection and cracking prior to failure.
D. 1.5 times the sufficient strength to withstand initial prestress load upon transfer E. Must be determined by load testing Answer: A and C Explanation: IBC 2024 Section 1810.4.1.1 establishes minimum concrete strength requirements before driving precast piles. The concrete must attain at least 75% of specified compressive strength and must possess adequate strength to resist handling and driving stresses. These dual requirements ensure both structural integrity during installation and adequate long-term performance. Prestress transfer requirements are typically addressed separately in prestressed concrete design provisions rather than in driving strength requirements. Section F: Structural Steel Design Question 13 According to AISC Steel Construction Manual, 16th Edition, which limit states utilize a resistance factor of 0.90 and safety factor of 1.67? (Select the four that apply) A. Tensile yielding in the gross section B. Tensile rupture in the net section C. Compressive failure including all buckling modes D. Flexural failure including all buckling modes E. Shear failure including all buckling modes Answer: A, C, D, and E Explanation: AISC 360 specifies resistance factors and safety factors for various limit states. Chapters D (tension members), E (compression members), F (flexural members), and G (shear members) establish φ = 0.90 for LRFD and Ω = 1.67 for ASD for the listed limit states. Tensile
rupture in the net section (Chapter D) employs different resistance factors due to the more brittle nature of rupture failure compared to yielding. Question 14 For a painted 3/4-inch thick plate bolted to a CMU wall with two 5/8-inch diameter bolts in short-slotted holes, which statements are correct? (Select the three that apply) A. Minimum edge distance from hole center to plate edge = 1 in. B. Minimum edge distance from hole center to plate edge = 7/8 in. C. Minimum center-to-center spacing of holes = 1.875 in. D. Minimum center-to-center spacing of holes = 1.670 in. E. Maximum edge distance from hole center to plate edge = 9 in. F. Maximum edge distance from hole center to plate edge = 6 in. Answer: A, C, and E Explanation: AISC Section J3 provisions govern bolted connection detailing requirements. For standard holes in bolt diameters of 5/8 inch, minimum edge distance is 1 inch (AISC Table J3.4). Minimum center-to-center spacing is specified as 3 times the bolt diameter (3 × 5/8 inch = 1. inches) per Section J3.3. Maximum edge distance is limited to 12 times the plate thickness (12 × 3/4 inch = 9 inches) per Section J3.5, with additional limitations for exposed plates. Question 15 An expansion anchor with medium reliability governed by concrete pullout under tension loads, anchored in plain concrete footing without supplemental reinforcement, has a strength reduction factor most nearly equal to: A. 0. B. 0.
Question 17 Which seismic force-resisting system is characterized by the largest response modification coefficient (R) and greatest ductility under ASCE 7 provisions? A. Ordinary moment frame (OMF) B. Intermediate moment frame (IMF) C. Special moment frame (SMF) D. Concentrically braced frame (CBF) Answer: C Explanation: Special moment frames (SMF) provide the highest response modification coefficient (R = 8 for steel SMF) among typical seismic force-resisting systems, indicating substantial ductility and energy dissipation capacity. The SMF system requires stringent detailing provisions including beam-to-column connections capable of developing plastic hinges and accommodating inelastic rotations. Ordinary and intermediate moment frames provide reduced seismic performance, while concentrically braced frames offer different lateral stiffness characteristics. Question 18 According to ASCE 7-22, Risk Category II buildings located in Seismic Design Category D require which of the following? A. Only seismic force-resisting system detailing conforming to AISC 341 B. Both seismic force-resisting system detailing and foundation consideration of seismic effects C. Only consideration of horizontal seismic forces with no structural detailing requirements D. Wind loads govern over seismic forces for all loading combinations Answer: B
Explanation: ASCE 7-22 requires comprehensive seismic design considerations for Risk Category II buildings in Seismic Design Category D, including special detailing of the seismic force-resisting system in accordance with AISC 341 and foundation design accounting for seismic effects. The foundation system must accommodate seismically induced forces and deformations, including consideration of soil-structure interaction, liquefaction potential, and settlement under seismic loading. Section H: Construction Practices and Quality Control Question 19 Inspection requirements for structural welding according to IBC 2024 and AWS D1.1 include which of the following mandatory procedures? A. Visual inspection of all completed welds B. Nondestructive testing of 100% of welds C. Visual inspection of all welds with additional NDT as specified D. NDT testing only when requested by the owner Answer: C Explanation: IBC 2024 and AWS D1.1 establish a tiered inspection program beginning with visual inspection of all completed welds. Based on structural importance, connection type, and welding process, additional nondestructive testing requirements may be specified using methods including ultrasonic testing, magnetic particle testing, or radiographic examination. The extent of NDT is determined by the applicable building code provisions, structural specifications, and engineer of record requirements.
Answer: C Explanation: Consolidation settlement analysis requires consideration of both consolidation coefficients (cv, time rate) and compressibility parameters (Cc, Cr, e0). The magnitude of settlement depends on compressibility indices and initial void ratio, while the rate of settlement is governed by consolidation coefficient and drainage path length. Terzaghi's one-dimensional consolidation theory integrates these parameters to predict both settlement magnitude and time rate. Question 22 In seismic design of retaining walls, the Mononobe-Okabe method provides the most appropriate calculation of: A. Static earth pressure B. Active earth pressure considering horizontal acceleration C. Passive earth pressure with seismic effects D. Lateral earth pressure in cohesive soils Answer: B Explanation: The Mononobe-Okabe method extends the Coulomb wedge theory to incorporate seismic effects, specifically calculating active earth pressure coefficients in granular soils subjected to horizontal ground acceleration. This pseudo-static approach assumes that seismic forces can be represented by the product of the soil mass and the seismic acceleration coefficient. The method provides the basis for seismic lateral earth pressure calculation in ASCE 7 and AASHTO provisions for retaining wall design in seismic zones.
Question 23 The coefficient of lateral earth pressure at rest (K0) in overconsolidated soils is correctly expressed by: A. K0 = 1 - sin φ' B. K0 = sin φ' C. K0 = (1 - sin φ') × OCR^0. D. K0 = (1 - sin φ') × OCR^m Answer: D Explanation: The coefficient of lateral earth pressure at rest in overconsolidated soils is accurately predicted by the empirical relationship K0 = (1 - sin φ') × OCR^m, where m typically ranges from 0.4 to 0.5 for most soils. This relationship, attributed to Mayne and Kulhawy, accounts for the influence of overconsolidation ratio on the in-situ horizontal stress state. The parameter φ' represents the effective stress friction angle determined from drained shear tests. Section J: Advanced Structural Topics Question 24 According to the direct analysis method in AISC 360, second-order effects in steel frame design must be considered through: A. P-Δ effects only B. P-δ effects only C. Both P-Δ and P-δ effects D. Geometric stiffness matrix modifications Answer: C
C. Higher concrete compressive strength D. Additional longitudinal reinforcement requirements Answer: B Explanation: Special moment frames are distinguished from intermediate frames by significantly more stringent transverse reinforcement requirements in potential plastic hinge regions. ACI 318 requires closely spaced hoops within the critical regions adjacent to beam- column joints, ensuring confinement of the concrete core and prevention of longitudinal bar buckling during inelastic deformations. While other design parameters may differ, the transverse reinforcement requirements represent the most significant distinction in seismic detailing. Section K: Construction Inspection and Quality Assurance Question 27 According to ICC-ES acceptance criteria for foundation anchors, which of the following is required for qualification of post-installed anchors? A. Minimum 10-year service life validation B. Qualification testing including combined tension and shear loads C. Both code compliance testing and quality control documentation D. Mandatory third-party certification of all installations Answer: C Explanation: ICC-ES acceptance criteria require comprehensive qualification testing under various loading conditions combined with manufacturer quality control documentation. This includes evaluation of anchor performance under tension, shear, and combined loads in various substrate conditions, along with documented quality assurance procedures for manufacturing and installation. The criteria establish minimum requirements for both product performance and consistency through manufacturing controls.
Question 28 During high-strength bolt installation verification, the calibrated torque wrench method is considered acceptable when: A. The wrench calibration is verified daily B. The wrench calibration is verified at the beginning and end of each work shift C. The wrench calibration is verified weekly D. Calibration is not required for the turn-of-nut method Answer: B Explanation: Quality assurance inspection requirements specify that calibrated torque wrenches must be verified at the beginning and end of each work shift to ensure proper tensioning throughout the work period. This verification procedure is mandated by RCSC (Research Council on Structural Connections) and IBC requirements for control of high-strength bolt installations. Daily verification at shift commencement and conclusion provides documentation of calibration stability and accuracy during the work interval. Section L: Environmental and Durability Considerations Question 29 In aggressive marine environments, the recommended minimum cover for reinforcing steel in concrete is specified by ACI 318 based on: A. Structural requirements only B. Exposure classification and structural considerations C. Economic optimization of construction D. Aesthetic requirements
