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PGMP (PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
PROFESSIONAL) CERTIFICATION, BASED ON
THE STANDARD FOR PROGRAM
MANAGEMENT (5TH EDITION) AND ALIGNED
WITH PMI’S EXAM Q&A WITH RATIONALES
PgMP Practice Exam
11. Which of the following is an output of the Program Definition phase? A) Program charter B) Program management plan C) Benefits delivery D) Component closure Answer: B Rationale: The Program Definition phase produces the approved program management plan, which integrates all subsidiary plans. 12. A program manager is managing multiple components with conflicting priorities. What is the best approach to resolve conflicts? A) Escalate to the PMO B) Use the program’s governance framework and benefits prioritization C) Let component managers negotiate independently D) Follow the schedule regardless of priorities
Answer: B Rationale: The governance framework and benefits prioritization provide objective criteria for resolving conflicts.
13. Which stakeholder is responsible for funding the program and ensuring resources are available? A) Program manager B) Program sponsor C) Benefits owner D) PMO director Answer: B Rationale: The program sponsor provides funding, resources, and high-level governance. 14. During a governance review, the steering committee asks for a forecast of benefits realization. The program manager should refer to the: A) Program schedule B) Benefits register and benefits realization plan C) Risk register D) Work breakdown structure Answer: B Rationale: The benefits register and realization plan track expected versus actual benefits and forecast future realization. 15. A program is transitioning from component delivery to post-program operations. What is the program manager’s primary role? A) Ensure all components are closed financially B) Verify that operations can sustain the benefits C) Write user manuals D) Approve all change requests
Answer: B Rationale: Program dependencies exist between components (projects or operational activities) and must be managed at the program level.
19. The program manager is evaluating a change request that reduces scope of one component to meet a deadline. The change will affect benefits of another component. Who should approve this change? A) Component project manager B) Program manager C) Program governance board or change control board D) Sponsor Answer: C Rationale: Changes affecting benefits, scope, or cross-component dependencies require approval from the program governance board/CCB. 20. What is the purpose of a program benefits register? A) Track risks and issues B) List all benefits, their owners, metrics, and realization dates C) Record stakeholder feedback D) Document lessons learned Answer: B Rationale: The benefits register is a key artifact listing each benefit, its owner, KPIs, baseline, and planned realization date. 1. A program manager is developing the program roadmap. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a program roadmap? A) Detailed schedule of all component activities B) High-level visual timeline of major program milestones and component interdependencies
C) Resource allocation matrix D) Risk register timeline Answer: B Rationale: The program roadmap provides a high-level visual representation of the program's major milestones, key decisions, and component interdependencies over time. It is not a detailed schedule (A) nor a resource or risk tool (C, D).
2. During program execution, a component manager reports a critical resource shortage that will delay a component’s deliverable. This deliverable is a prerequisite for two other components. What should the program manager do first? A) Reallocate resources from lower-priority components B) Escalate to the program steering committee C) Assess the impact on program benefits and adjust the program schedule D) Approve the component manager’s request for overtime Answer: C Rationale: The program manager must first understand the impact on benefits, schedule, and dependencies before taking action. Assessing impact aligns with program governance and integrated management. 3. Which document formally authorizes the program and defines the program’s initial scope, benefits, and alignment with strategic goals? A) Program business case B) Program charter C) Program management plan D) Benefits management plan Answer: B Rationale: The program charter is issued by the sponsoring organization and authorizes the program, including high-level scope, benefits, and strategic alignment.
7. Which of the following is an example of a program-level risk as opposed to a component-level risk? A) A specific component’s developer resigns B) A supplier fails to deliver hardware for one component C) A new regulation affects the business case for all components D) A component’s test case fails Answer: C Rationale: A program-level risk affects the overall program or multiple components. A new regulation impacting the business case is systemic. 8. A program manager is preparing the program financial plan. Which of the following is included in program costs? A) Only direct costs of individual projects B) Direct and indirect costs, including governance, integration, and overhead C) Only costs incurred during execution D) Only costs approved in the business case Answer: B Rationale: Program costs include direct component costs plus program-level costs (e.g., governance, program management office, integration, overhead allocations). 9. The program manager notices that benefits are not being tracked consistently across components. What document should define how benefits will be measured and reported? A) Program scope statement B) Benefits management plan C) Quality management plan D) Program dashboard Answer: B Rationale: The benefits management plan describes how and when benefits will be measured, tracked, and reported.
10. A component is cancelled due to changing market conditions. The program manager should first: A) Remove the component from the program schedule B) Notify all stakeholders of the cancellation C) Assess the impact on program benefits and strategic alignment D) Reassign the component’s resources to other components Answer: C Rationale: The program manager must evaluate how the cancellation affects expected benefits and alignment with strategy before making other decisions. 21. During program execution, a component project manager reports a major risk that could eliminate a key benefit. What should the program manager do? A) Ask the project manager to handle it B) Update the program risk register and evaluate impact on benefits C) Immediately cancel the component D) Escalate to the sponsor Answer: B Rationale: Program risks impacting benefits must be assessed at the program level. The risk register is updated, and impact analysis follows. 22. Which of the following is an input to the Program Benefits Management process? A) Program charter B) Program business case C) Organizational strategic plan D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: The strategic plan, business case, and charter all inform benefits management.
Answer: B Rationale: Program managers are responsible for recommending changes, including termination, if benefits are no longer achievable or aligned.
26. Which process group involves authorizing and defining the program? A) Program Initiation B) Program Planning C) Program Definition D) Program Setup Answer: D (Note: In the Standard, it’s "Program Initiation" in some versions; but the 5th Ed uses Program Definition and Benefits Management, etc. However, common PgMP: "Program Initiation" is correct.) Correction: In PMI’s Standard for Program Management (5th Ed), the phases are: Program Definition, Program Benefits Delivery, Program Closure. Initiation activities occur in Definition. So answer: Program Definition. Answer (corrected to Standard 5th Ed): A (Program Initiation) if using old, but in 5th Ed: Program Definition. Let’s stick with 5th Ed: Program Definition phase includes charter, business case refinement, and initial planning. Better to align: In 5th Ed, the phases are: Program Definition, Program Benefits Delivery, Program Closure. So answer: Program Definition. Rationale: The Program Definition phase authorizes the program and defines its scope, benefits, and management plan. 27. A program manager is using a benefits dependency map. What does it show? A) Risk probability and impact B) Logical links between program outputs, capabilities, and benefits C) Stakeholder communication paths D) Financial cash flow
Answer: B Rationale: A benefits dependency map shows how outputs produce capabilities, which in turn deliver benefits.
28. Which of the following is an example of a program financial metric? A) Cost performance index (CPI) for a single project B) Return on investment (ROI) for the entire program C) Number of change requests D) Team morale index Answer: B Rationale: ROI is a program-level financial metric. CPI is project-level. 29. A component is delayed, causing a critical dependency to be missed. What technique can the program manager use to analyze schedule impact? A) Monte Carlo simulation B) Critical path method (at program level using dependency links) C) Earned value management (EVM) D) Fishbone diagram Answer: B Rationale: Program schedule management uses dependency analysis and critical path method across components. 30. The program manager is closing the program. Which document is needed to formally confirm that all benefits have been transitioned? A) Program closure report B) Benefits realization sign-off from operations C) Final program financial report D) Lessons learned register
A) Manage the program budget B) Be accountable for realizing specific program benefits C) Approve all component changes D) Serve as program sponsor Answer: B Rationale: The benefits owner is accountable for ensuring that a specific benefit is achieved.
35. The program manager is updating the stakeholder engagement plan. Which factor most influences stakeholder engagement strategies? A) Stakeholder’s position in the organizational chart B) Stakeholder’s power, interest, and attitude toward the program C) Stakeholder’s technical expertise D) Stakeholder’s location Answer: B Rationale: Power, interest, and attitude determine the engagement approach. 36. A program’s business case is no longer valid due to a competitor’s product launch. The program manager should: A) Continue execution to avoid sunk costs B) Recommend program termination to the governance board C) Reduce scope to cut costs D) Accelerate delivery Answer: B Rationale: Program managers must recommend termination if the business case is no longer viable. 37. Which of the following best describes program governance? A) Daily management of component tasks B) Framework for making program decisions, approvals, and oversight
C) Team building activities D) Vendor management Answer: B Rationale: Governance provides decision-making framework, policies, and oversight.
38. A program manager is facilitating a workshop to identify program risks. Which technique is most effective? A) Delphi technique B) Brainstorming with cross-component stakeholders C) Monte Carlo simulation D) Sensitivity analysis Answer: B Rationale: Brainstorming with diverse stakeholders captures broad risks. 39. The program manager is preparing the program quality management plan. What is the primary focus? A) Quality of each project deliverable B) Quality of program-level processes, integration, and benefits achievement C) Code review standards D) Testing frequency Answer: B Rationale: Program quality ensures effective program management processes and benefits delivery. 40. Which of the following is an output of Program Closure? A) Program charter B) Final benefits realization report C) Component kickoff meeting D) Risk register
A) Escalate to the PMO B) Use program priorities and benefits alignment to allocate resources C) Split resources equally D) Let them resolve it themselves Answer: B Rationale: Program-level prioritization based on benefits and strategic goals resolves conflicts.
45. Which document outlines how the program will be structured, governed, and executed? A) Program charter B) Program management plan C) Business case D) Benefits management plan Answer: B Rationale: The program management plan integrates all subsidiary plans and defines execution approach. 46. The program manager is identifying assumptions and constraints. What is an example of a program constraint? A) The weather will be favorable B) Fixed program budget of $10M C) Key resources will be available D) Customer needs will not change Answer: B Rationale: A fixed budget is a constraint. Assumptions are uncertain but believed true. 47. A program manager wants to assess the maturity of program management practices in the organization. What framework is commonly used? A) CMMI B) OPM C) Six Sigma
D) Agile manifesto Answer: B Rationale: OPM3 (Organizational Project Management Maturity Model) assesses program management maturity.
48. Which of the following is an example of a program-level issue? A) A component’s test fails B) A key benefit metric is not being achieved due to integration failure across components C) A team member is late D) A vendor misses a delivery for one project Answer: B Rationale: Issues affecting benefits or cross-component integration are program-level. 49. The program manager is using a decision tree to evaluate a strategic choice. What type of analysis is this? A) Qualitative risk analysis B) Quantitative risk analysis C) Cost-benefit analysis D) Sensitivity analysis Answer: B Rationale: Decision trees are a quantitative risk analysis technique. 50. What is the primary purpose of the program benefits delivery phase? A) Develop the program charter B) Execute components and realize incremental benefits C) Close the program D) Plan the program Answer: B Rationale: Benefits delivery phase executes components and delivers benefits incrementally.
B) Request a change request and impact analysis to the governance board C) Decline the request D) Add it without documentation
Answer: B Rationale: Any change to scope/benefits requires formal change control and governance approval.
55. Which of the following is a key document for program procurement management? A) Component procurement plans B) Program-level procurement strategy and contract management approach C) Individual purchase orders D) Vendor invoices Answer: B Rationale: Program procurement management focuses on strategy and coordination across components. 56. A program manager is using a balanced scorecard to track program performance. What dimensions are typically included? A) Financial, customer, internal processes, learning & growth B) Cost, schedule, quality, risk C) Scope, time, cost, quality D) Benefits, risks, issues, changes Answer: A Rationale: Balanced scorecard includes financial, customer, internal process, and learning/growth. 57. During a program, a component manager repeatedly misses status report deadlines. The program manager should: A) Ignore it B) Escalate to the project manager’s functional manager C) Review the governance and communication plan, and address performance expectations D) Remove the component from the program
