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PGMP (PROGRAM MANAGEMENT PROFESSIONAL) CERTIFICATION, BASED ON
THE STANDARD FOR PROGRAM MANAGEMENT (5TH EDITION) AND ALIGNED
WITH PMI’S EXAM
PgMP Practice Exam
1. A program manager is developing the program roadmap. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a program roadmap? A) Detailed schedule of all component activities B) High-level visual timeline of major program milestones and component interdependencies C) Resource allocation matrix D) Risk register timeline Answer: B Rationale: The program roadmap provides a high-level visual representation of the program's major milestones, key decisions, and component interdependencies over time. It is not a detailed schedule (A) nor a resource or risk tool (C, D). 2. During program execution, a component manager reports a critical resource shortage that will delay a component’s deliverable. This deliverable is a prerequisite for two other components. What should the program manager do first? A) Reallocate resources from lower-priority components B) Escalate to the program steering committee C) Assess the impact on program benefits and adjust the program schedule D) Approve the component manager’s request for overtime Answer: C Rationale: The program manager must first understand the impact on benefits, schedule, and dependencies before taking action. Assessing impact aligns with program governance and integrated management. 3. Which document formally authorizes the program and defines the program’s initial scope, benefits, and alignment with strategic goals? A) Program business case B) Program charter C) Program management plan D) Benefits management plan
Answer: B Rationale: The program charter is issued by the sponsoring organization and authorizes the program, including high-level scope, benefits, and strategic alignment.
4. A program manager is identifying stakeholders for a new program. Which tool is most effective for analyzing stakeholder power, influence, and interest? A) RACI chart B) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix C) Power/interest grid D) Communication matrix Answer: C Rationale: The power/interest grid is a common stakeholder analysis tool to classify stakeholders and plan engagement strategies. 5. A key benefit of program management compared to project management is: A) Detailed task-level control B) Focus on delivering specific outputs C) Optimization of benefits realization across multiple related components D) Elimination of risks Answer: C Rationale: Program management focuses on coordinating related projects and operational activities to achieve benefits that would not be possible if managed separately. 6. During program transition, the program manager is planning the handover of deliverables to operations. What is the most critical success factor? A) Formal acceptance criteria defined in the program management plan B) Completion of all project closure reports C) Training of operations staff on new processes D) Sign-off from the program sponsor Answer: A Rationale: Formal acceptance criteria ensure that operations understand what is being handed over and that deliverables meet agreed-upon standards. 7. Which of the following is an example of a program-level risk as opposed to a component-level risk? A) A specific component’s developer resigns B) A supplier fails to deliver hardware for one component C) A new regulation affects the business case for all components D) A component’s test case fails
C) Benefits delivery D) Component closure Answer: B Rationale: The Program Definition phase produces the approved program management plan, which integrates all subsidiary plans.
12. A program manager is managing multiple components with conflicting priorities. What is the best approach to resolve conflicts? A) Escalate to the PMO B) Use the program’s governance framework and benefits prioritization C) Let component managers negotiate independently D) Follow the schedule regardless of priorities Answer: B Rationale: The governance framework and benefits prioritization provide objective criteria for resolving conflicts. 13. Which stakeholder is responsible for funding the program and ensuring resources are available? A) Program manager B) Program sponsor C) Benefits owner D) PMO director Answer: B Rationale: The program sponsor provides funding, resources, and high-level governance. 14. During a governance review, the steering committee asks for a forecast of benefits realization. The program manager should refer to the: A) Program schedule B) Benefits register and benefits realization plan C) Risk register D) Work breakdown structure Answer: B Rationale: The benefits register and realization plan track expected versus actual benefits and forecast future realization. 15. A program is transitioning from component delivery to post-program operations. What is the program manager’s primary role? A) Ensure all components are closed financially
B) Verify that operations can sustain the benefits C) Write user manuals D) Approve all change requests Answer: B Rationale: The program manager ensures operational readiness and that the organization can sustain the delivered benefits.
16. Which of the following is a key difference between a program and a portfolio? A) Programs have a defined lifecycle; portfolios are ongoing B) Portfolios focus on benefits; programs focus on outputs C) Programs are temporary; portfolios are permanent D) Both A and C Answer: D Rationale: Programs have a defined start and end (temporary), while portfolios are collections of programs/projects aligned to strategy and are ongoing. 17. A program manager is performing a gap analysis. What is the purpose? A) Identify missing resources in the schedule B) Compare current capabilities with desired future state to define program scope C) Track actual versus planned benefits D) Document stakeholder communication gaps Answer: B Rationale: Gap analysis identifies differences between current and desired future states, helping define program scope and required changes. 18. Which of the following best describes a program dependency? A) A relationship between two tasks in a project schedule B) A logical relationship between two or more program components C) A constraint that limits program options D) An assumption made during planning Answer: B Rationale: Program dependencies exist between components (projects or operational activities) and must be managed at the program level. 19. The program manager is evaluating a change request that reduces scope of one component to meet a deadline. The change will affect benefits of another component. Who should approve this change? A) Component project manager
differences C) A single language for all documentation D) Frequent email updates Answer: B Rationale: A communication management plan tailored to geographic and cultural diversity ensures effective communication.
24. The program manager is preparing for phase-gate review. Which of the following should be presented? A) Detailed task completion of all projects B) Progress against program milestones, benefits, risks, and financials C) Individual team member performance reviews D) Vendor contract details Answer: B Rationale: Phase-gate reviews focus on program-level progress, benefits, risks, financials, and alignment with strategy. 25. A program is not realizing expected benefits due to external market shifts. What should the program manager do? A) Continue as planned B) Recommend program termination or reprioritization to the governance board C) Reduce benefits targets D) Increase component budgets Answer: B Rationale: Program managers are responsible for recommending changes, including termination, if benefits are no longer achievable or aligned. 26. Which process group involves authorizing and defining the program? A) Program Initiation B) Program Planning C) Program Definition D) Program Setup Answer: D (Note: In the Standard, it’s "Program Initiation" in some versions; but the 5th Ed uses Program Definition and Benefits Management, etc. However, common PgMP: "Program Initiation" is correct.) Correction: In PMI’s Standard for Program Management (5th Ed), the phases are: Program Definition, Program Benefits Delivery, Program Closure. Initiation activities occur in Definition. So answer: Program Definition.
Answer (corrected to Standard 5th Ed): A (Program Initiation) if using old, but in 5th Ed: Program Definition. Let’s stick with 5th Ed: Program Definition phase includes charter, business case refinement, and initial planning. Better to align: In 5th Ed, the phases are: Program Definition, Program Benefits Delivery, Program Closure. So answer: Program Definition. Rationale: The Program Definition phase authorizes the program and defines its scope, benefits, and management plan.
27. A program manager is using a benefits dependency map. What does it show? A) Risk probability and impact B) Logical links between program outputs, capabilities, and benefits C) Stakeholder communication paths D) Financial cash flow Answer: B Rationale: A benefits dependency map shows how outputs produce capabilities, which in turn deliver benefits. 28. Which of the following is an example of a program financial metric? A) Cost performance index (CPI) for a single project B) Return on investment (ROI) for the entire program C) Number of change requests D) Team morale index Answer: B Rationale: ROI is a program-level financial metric. CPI is project-level. 29. A component is delayed, causing a critical dependency to be missed. What technique can the program manager use to analyze schedule impact? A) Monte Carlo simulation B) Critical path method (at program level using dependency links) C) Earned value management (EVM) D) Fishbone diagram Answer: B Rationale: Program schedule management uses dependency analysis and critical path method across components. 30. The program manager is closing the program. Which document is needed to formally confirm that all benefits have been transitioned?
34. What is the role of the benefits owner? A) Manage the program budget B) Be accountable for realizing specific program benefits C) Approve all component changes D) Serve as program sponsor Answer: B Rationale: The benefits owner is accountable for ensuring that a specific benefit is achieved. 35. The program manager is updating the stakeholder engagement plan. Which factor most influences stakeholder engagement strategies? A) Stakeholder’s position in the organizational chart B) Stakeholder’s power, interest, and attitude toward the program C) Stakeholder’s technical expertise D) Stakeholder’s location Answer: B Rationale: Power, interest, and attitude determine the engagement approach. 36. A program’s business case is no longer valid due to a competitor’s product launch. The program manager should: A) Continue execution to avoid sunk costs B) Recommend program termination to the governance board C) Reduce scope to cut costs D) Accelerate delivery Answer: B Rationale: Program managers must recommend termination if the business case is no longer viable. 37. Which of the following best describes program governance? A) Daily management of component tasks B) Framework for making program decisions, approvals, and oversight C) Team building activities D) Vendor management Answer: B Rationale: Governance provides decision-making framework, policies, and oversight. 38. A program manager is facilitating a workshop to identify program risks. Which technique is most effective?
A) Delphi technique B) Brainstorming with cross-component stakeholders C) Monte Carlo simulation D) Sensitivity analysis Answer: B Rationale: Brainstorming with diverse stakeholders captures broad risks.
39. The program manager is preparing the program quality management plan. What is the primary focus? A) Quality of each project deliverable B) Quality of program-level processes, integration, and benefits achievement C) Code review standards D) Testing frequency Answer: B Rationale: Program quality ensures effective program management processes and benefits delivery. 40. Which of the following is an output of Program Closure? A) Program charter B) Final benefits realization report C) Component kickoff meeting D) Risk register Answer: B Rationale: Program closure produces final benefits realization report and lessons learned. 41. A program manager is using a resource histogram at the program level. What does it show? A) Resource allocation across components over time B) Project budget variance C) Risk probability D) Stakeholder satisfaction Answer: A Rationale: A resource histogram displays resource usage across components. 42. During a program, the sponsor changes. What should the program manager do? A) Continue as before B) Re-engage the new sponsor to confirm strategic alignment, benefits, and governance
B) Fixed program budget of $10M C) Key resources will be available D) Customer needs will not change Answer: B Rationale: A fixed budget is a constraint. Assumptions are uncertain but believed true.
47. A program manager wants to assess the maturity of program management practices in the organization. What framework is commonly used? A) CMMI B) OPM C) Six Sigma D) Agile manifesto Answer: B Rationale: OPM3 (Organizational Project Management Maturity Model) assesses program management maturity. 48. Which of the following is an example of a program-level issue? A) A component’s test fails B) A key benefit metric is not being achieved due to integration failure across components C) A team member is late D) A vendor misses a delivery for one project Answer: B Rationale: Issues affecting benefits or cross-component integration are program-level. 49. The program manager is using a decision tree to evaluate a strategic choice. What type of analysis is this? A) Qualitative risk analysis B) Quantitative risk analysis C) Cost-benefit analysis D) Sensitivity analysis Answer: B Rationale: Decision trees are a quantitative risk analysis technique. 50. What is the primary purpose of the program benefits delivery phase? A) Develop the program charter B) Execute components and realize incremental benefits
C) Close the program D) Plan the program Answer: B Rationale: Benefits delivery phase executes components and delivers benefits incrementally.
51. A program manager is reporting to the steering committee. Which of the following is most important to include? A) Status of each project task B) Achievement of planned benefits, program risks, and milestone progress C) Individual performance reviews D) Meeting minutes of component teams Answer: B Rationale: Steering committee focuses on benefits, risks, and strategic alignment. 52. Which of the following is an output of the Program Definition phase? A) Approved program business case B) Program charter C) Program management plan D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: The Definition phase produces charter, business case, and management plan. 53. A program manager is performing stakeholder analysis. Which document is updated as a result? A) Risk register B) Stakeholder register and engagement plan C) Scope statement D) Quality checklist Answer: B Rationale: Stakeholder analysis updates the stakeholder register and engagement plan. 54. The program sponsor asks the program manager to add a new component that is not aligned with the current benefits. What should the program manager do? A) Add the component immediately B) Request a change request and impact analysis to the governance board C) Decline the request D) Add it without documentation
Answer: B Rationale: Lessons learned improve future programs and organizational knowledge.
59. A program manager is calculating the program’s net present value (NPV). What does a positive NPV indicate? A) The program will lose money B) The program’s benefits exceed costs in present value terms C) The program has high risk D) The program schedule is delayed Answer: B Rationale: Positive NPV means benefits (PV) > costs (PV). 60. Which of the following is a technique for program risk response planning? A) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept B) Plan, do, check, act C) Waterfall, agile, hybrid D) SWOT analysis Answer: A Rationale: Risk response strategies include avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept, and sometimes exploit/escalate. 61. A program manager is leading a program that includes agile components and traditional components. What is the best approach? A) Force all components to use agile B) Force all components to use waterfall C) Use a hybrid governance model that respects each component’s method while maintaining program integration D) Separate them into different programs Answer: C Rationale: Program management accommodates different methods with integrated governance. 62. What is the primary output of the program quality assurance process? A) Quality metrics B) Quality reports and recommended improvements C) Test cases D) Defect log
Answer: B Rationale: Quality assurance produces reports and improvement recommendations.
63. A program manager is facilitating a program kickoff meeting. Who should attend? A) Only component project managers B) All key stakeholders, sponsor, component managers, and program team C) Only executives D) Only external vendors Answer: B Rationale: Kickoff includes all key stakeholders to align expectations. 64. Which of the following is an example of a program-level resource constraint? A) One project’s budget is cut B) Limited number of specialized engineers shared across all components C) A developer quits D) A server is down Answer: B Rationale: Shared scarce resources across components create program-level constraint. 65. The program manager is reviewing the program’s key performance indicators. Which KPI indicates program health? A) Number of component changes B) Benefits realization index (actual vs. planned benefits) C) Number of emails sent D) Number of meetings held Answer: B Rationale: Benefits realization index directly measures program success. 66. A program manager is planning the program governance structure. Which of the following is a governance body? A) Program steering committee B) Daily standup meeting C) Component team D) Vendor selection committee Answer: A Rationale: The steering committee is a key governance body for decision-making.
C) Only at the program level without decomposition D) At the same level as the project WBS Answer: B Rationale: Program WBS decomposes to component level and key deliverables.
72. Which of the following best describes “program integration management”? A) Coordinating activities within a single project B) Unifying and coordinating component activities to achieve program benefits C) Managing vendor contracts D) Managing program budget Answer: B Rationale: Integration management aligns components, dependencies, and benefits. 73. A program manager is using a “benefits map” or “benefits dependency network.” What is its purpose? A) Show financial cash flow B) Show cause-effect relationships between outputs, capabilities, and benefits C) Show stakeholder hierarchy D) Show risk probability Answer: B Rationale: Benefits maps show logical links from outputs to benefits. 74. During program execution, a key stakeholder loses interest and becomes resistant. What should the program manager do? A) Ignore the stakeholder B) Reassess stakeholder engagement and develop a tailored plan to re-engage C) Remove the stakeholder from the stakeholder register D) Escalate to the sponsor for removal Answer: B Rationale: The engagement plan must be adaptive to changing stakeholder attitudes. 75. Which of the following is an input to the Program Schedule Management process? A) Program WBS B) Component schedules C) Dependencies matrix D) All of the above
Answer: D Rationale: Program schedule uses WBS, component schedules, and dependencies.
76. A program manager is conducting a benefits review at the end of a program phase. What is the main question to answer? A) Are all tasks complete? B) Are the planned benefits on track and still aligned with strategy? C) Has the budget been spent? D) Are team members happy? Answer: B Rationale: Phase reviews focus on benefits realization and strategic alignment. 77. Which of the following is a key document for program financial management? A) Program financial plan and budget B) Component invoices C) Time sheets D) Purchase orders Answer: A Rationale: The financial plan and budget are key program artifacts. 78. A program manager is planning the program communication channels. What should be considered to avoid information overload? A) Send all information to everyone B) Tailor communication frequency, detail, and method to stakeholder needs C) Use only email D) Hold daily meetings Answer: B Rationale: Tailored communication prevents overload and improves effectiveness. 79. Which of the following is an example of a program strategic objective? A) Deliver software by June B) Increase market share by 10% within 2 years C) Complete 100 test cases D) Hire 5 developers Answer: B Rationale: Strategic objectives are business goals, not task outputs.
