Download Pathology Final Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
Portage Learning Final Exam Patho
Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances. - ☑️ FALSE Persistent metaplasia can lead to dysplasia. - ☑️ TRUE Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia - ☑️ FALSE Persistent dysplasia eventually results in cancer - ☑️ TRUE Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions - ☑️ TRUE A bodybuilder's muscles will display hyperplasia. - ☑️ FALSE Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells - ☑️ FALSE Endometrial hyperplasia is a normal physiologic occurrence - ☑️ FALSE Nutritional deprivation can cause tissue to atrophy - ☑️ TRUE Lack of nerve stimulation can cause cells to atrophy - ☑️ TRUE Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is a type of dysplasia - ☑️ TRUE During pregnancy, uterine enlargement is caused by hypoplasia. - ☑️ FALSE Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. - ☑️ It is involved in cellular respiration. They play a role in apoptosis. Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. - ☑️ -Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation -Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells -Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within Which of the following are true of the cell? Select all that apply. -
☑️ -Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane -Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell -Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply. - ☑️ -It controls shape and movement -Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions Which are false of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. - ☑️ -They are found far from the site of energy consumption -They control free radicals Which of the following are false regarding cell communication? - ☑️ Paracrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. - ☑️ dry gangrene- tissue becomes dry, shrinks, wrinkles and color changes dark brown or black, result of cut off arterial blood supply wet gangrene- cold, swollen and pulseless, skin is moist, black and under tension, blebs form on surface, liquefaction occurs and foul odor caused by bacteria Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. - ☑️ Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person. It often interferes with cell replacement and tissue regeneration. Coagulative necrosis results most often from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney. Liquefactive necrosis occurs when some of the cells die but their catalytic enzymes are not destroyed. It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses. Caseous necrosis occurs as part of granulomatous inflammation and is most often associated with tuberculosis.Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular occlusion. The term gangrene is applied when a considerable mass of tissue undergoes necrosis. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. - ☑️ FALSE Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. - ☑️ FALSE Cell proliferation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. - ☑️ TRUE Cell differentiation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. - ☑️ TRUE What are two important properties that stem cells possess? -
The T cells that display the host's MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection. - ☑️ FALSE The T cells that display the host's MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed positive selection. - ☑️ TRUE Which immunoglobulin passes immune factors from the mother to the fetus? - ☑️ IgG Which immunoglobulin provides local immunity on mucosal surfaces? - ☑️ IGA Which immunoglobulin is responsible in inflammation and allergic responses and combating parasitic infections? - ☑️ IgE Which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection? - ☑️ Lymphocytes Which lab value will typically NOT be elevated in a bacterial infection? - ☑️ Lymphocytes A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? - ☑️ (1) Any of the following reactions are accepted. Grade I: erythema and urticaria, with or without angioedema. Grade II: hypotension, tachycardia, dyspnea, and GI manifestations, like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping from mucosal edema. Grade III: bronchospasm, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac collapse. Grade IV: cardiac arrest (2) No (3) Epinephrine (4) identification about allergy, EpiPen A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? - ☑️ (1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late- phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. A 23-year-old African-American man with a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These
signs and symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities? - ☑️ Sickle cells on peripheral blood smear The patient is found to be a severely malnourished alcoholic. The most likely cause of his anemia is: - ☑️ Folate deficiency What is true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? - ☑️ - Dietary deficiencies aren't common -Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of it -B12 is bound to intrinsic factor Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? - ☑️ dietary deficiencies are common Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? - ☑️ MCV is decreased Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with iron deficiency anemia? - ☑️ Neurologic changes Which of the following is NOT associated with iron deficiency anemia? - ☑️ Normocytic Which of the following is FALSE regarding sickle cell disease? - ☑️ Average red cell lifespan is 60 days Which of the following is NOT true of thalassemias? - ☑️ Hypochromic, macrocytic anemia Which of the following are TRUE of hemophilia A? Select all that apply. - ☑️ The PTT is increased Spontaneous joint bleeding can occur Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. - ☑️ congestive heart failure, smoking, post-surgical state Which of the following is NOT a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply. - ☑️ Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia? - ☑️ Obesity, diabetes mellitus, high cholesterol diet Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? - ☑️ Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except: - ☑️ HDL > 60
A 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the ER. He is observed to be sitting up and struggling to breathe. His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough, and audible wheezing sounds. His pulse is rapid and weak, and both heart and breath sounds are distant on auscultation. His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a "cold," and now he doesn't get relief from his albuterol inhaler.Explain the changes in physiologic function underlying his signs and symptoms. - ☑️ Inflammatory cells from the bloodstream enter the bronchial wall where they attack invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chemicals that are toxicc to them - this causes airway inflammation. This hyper-response causes airway obstruction. An 18-year-old woman is admitted to the ER with a suspected drug overdose. Her respiratory rate is slow (4-6 breaths/minute) and shallow. Arterial blood gases reveal a PCO2 of 80 mm Hg and a PO2 of 60 mm Hg.What is the cause of this women's high PCO2 and low PO2?Hypoventilation almost always causes an increase in PCO2. Explain. - ☑️ Respiratory acidosis; with a decreased respiratory rate, you are not exhaling enough carbon dioxide and it accumulates. A 30-year-old man is brought to the ER with a knife wound to the chest. On visual inspection, asymmetry of chest movement during inspiration, displacement of the trachea, and absence of breath sounds on the side of the wound are noted. His neck veins are distended, and his pulse is rapid and thready.What is your initial diagnosis?What type of emergent treatment is necessary? - ☑️ 1) tension pneumothorax2) chest tube T/F - Make true if False: Oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the PNS. - ☑️ false, they produce myelin in the CNS. Astrocytes help to form the blood-brain barrier which prevents toxins from the blood from entering the brain. - ☑️ TRUE (T/F): Someone in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease requires assistance for their activities of daily living. - ☑️ FALSE Complete dependence for activities of daily living is characteristic of severe Alzheimer's disease. - ☑️ TRUE Wandering episodes are characteristic of severe Alzheimer's disease. - ☑️ False, wandering episodes increase in moderate Alzheimer's disease. A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department via ambulance at 5 pm. The patient's spouse reports that when they woke up (approximately at 6 am) he reported to her that he was having some blurred vision but decided to go about his day. As the day progressed, he started experiencing tingling and feelings of weakness on the entire left side of his body. He has a past medical history of diabetes. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. - ☑️ This patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A CT scan and MRI would be needed to determine if a clot was blocking blood flow to the brain tissue and to rule out a hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is found, this patient would need to be re- perfused through catheter- base methods as they are outside of the 3-4.5 treatment window for the use of tPA drugs.
A 72-year-old female is brought to the emergency department via ambulance at 9 am. Her husband reports that they were eating breakfast and she started to complain of a severe headache and blurred vision. She then lost consciousness, and he immediately called 911. She has a history of hypertension, and she is not compliant with her medication because she does not like the way it makes her feel. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. - ☑️ She is experiencing a hemmorhagic stroke. I would confirm this with a head CT. The treatment goal would be to control the bleed and decrease the cranial pressure through medication. I chose this treatment because we must salvage as much brain tissue and as quickly as possible to limit the physical changes to her body that are permanent. Risk factors for gallstone formation include each of the following EXCEPT:ObesityMale GenderAge (40s)Pregnancy - ☑️ Male Gender Risk factors for gallstone formation? - ☑️ Obesity, age (40s), pregnancy Complications of gallstones include each of the following EXCEPT: - ☑️ Cirrhosis Risk factors for gallstone formation include each of the following EXCEPT: - ☑️ age (60s) Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer? - ☑️ Pylori infection, family history, NSAID use, alcohol use Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include each of the following EXCEPT:pylori infectionFamily history of PUDNSAID useStress - ☑️ Stress Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include each of the following EXCEPT: H. Pylori infectionFamily history of PUDNSAID useAlcohol useDietary factors - ☑️ Dietary Factors What are rhythmic movements designed to propel the chyme along the small intestine toward the large intestine? - ☑️ Peristaltic Movements What are the intermittent contractions that help to mix and move food along? - ☑️ Rhythmic Movements True/False:Anti-diarrheal medication can be used with all types of diarrhea. - ☑️ FALSE True/False: Antibiotics should be used to treat all types of diarrhea. - ☑️ FALSE
☑️ They are in metabolic alkalosis without respiratory compensation. Treatment would be fluid replacement via saline solution. A patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The following are the results of their blood work: pH = 6.9, PCO2 = 52 mm, and HCO3- = 30 mEq/L. Based upon these results, what type of acid-base disorder are they experiencing? Is compensation occurring? Describe a treatment intervention for this disorder. Normal values are as follows: pH = 7.35-7.45, PCO2 = 35-45 mm, HCO3- = 22-26 mEq/L. - ☑️ The patient is in respiratory acidosis. The renal system is attempting to compensate as HCO3- concentration is elevated above normal limits. The goal of treatment for respiratory acidosis is improving ventilation. Supplemental O2 can be administered; in severe cases mechanical ventilation may be indicated. Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease - ☑️ Hyperpigmentation, weight loss, muscle weakness Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease include each of the following EXCEPT: Hyperpigmentation Weight loss Muscle weakness Hyperglycemia - ☑️ Hyperglycemia The following clinical measurements or lab values are commonly seen with Cushing syndrome EXCEPT: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypertension C. Elevated cortisol D. Hyponatremia - ☑️ D. Hyponatremia The following are common signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome EXCEPT: Poor wound healing Weight loss Osteoporosis Acne - ☑️ Weight Loss The following are common signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome EXCEPT: - ☑️ hypoglycemia Signs and symptoms of Addison's disease include each of the following EXCEPT: - ☑️ hyperglycemia (T/F): An endocrine hormone is released into circulation to act on a target organ. - ☑️ TRUE True/False: Target cells must have receptors to recognize a hormone and translate the signal into a cellular response. - ☑️ TRUE
T/F: A paracrine action occurs when a hormone exerts an action on the cells that produced it. - ☑️ false T/F: An autocrine action occurs when a hormone exerts an action on the cells that released them. - ☑️ True T/F: A paracrine hormone is a hormone that acts locally on cells other than those that produce the hormone. - ☑️ True True/False.Hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies. - ☑️ TRUE The production and release of hormones by the pituitary gland requires stimulation by the hypothalamus. - ☑️ TRUE The production and release of hormones by the hypothalamus requires stimulation by the pituitary gland - ☑️ FALSE A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Lab findings show a low serum T4 and elevated TSH.What diagnosis would her history and lab findings indicate? What type of treatment should be given? - ☑️ 1. Hypothyroidism
- synthetic T4 thyroid hormone, thyroxine Symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? - ☑️ Polydipsia, dehydration, fruity smell of breath Symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) include each of the following EXCEPT: Polydipsia Dehydration Fruity smell on the breath Brady cardia - ☑️ Brady cardia Which of the following would a patient likely report if you suspect they have OA? - ☑️ Stiffness in the morning that resolves within 30 minutes Which of the following would a patient likely exhibit on an initial physical exam if you suspect they have OA? (mark all that apply) A. A typical gait pattern B. A capsular pattern C. Crepitus with movement D. Bilateral involvement - ☑️ B. A capsular pattern C. Crepitus with movement Blood circulates through bone by what means? (mark all that apply)
