ASVAB Practice Exam 1: General Science Subtest, Exams of Credit and Risk Management

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Part V

Practice ASVAB Exams

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In this part...

D oing well on the ASVAB requires an effective study plan. You want to concentrate your study time on subject areas you may be having problems with. The prac- tice examinations in this part are great tools to enhance and plan your study program. Take the first test in this section to determine your strengths and weaknesses. Concentrate most of your study efforts on subject areas that are hard for you. When you think you’ve got it down, take the second test to mea- sure your improvement. Take the third test right before you’re ready to take the actual ASVAB to brush up on your test-taking skills. In this part, you also find a bonus Armed Forces Qualification Test (AFQT) practice exam. This practice test includes only the four ASVAB subtests that are used to make up your AFQT score — the score that determines whether you can even join the military branch of your choice. Not only does taking the sample tests help you understand what you need to study, but it also gets you into the test- taking mindset. By taking the tests, you get used to the format of each subtest. Trust me — these sample tests will give you confidence on test day. 23_637609-pp05.indd 190 23_637609-pp05.indd 190 10/11/10 1:01 PM10/11/10 1:

192 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams Answer Sheet for Practice Exam 1 5 1 Subtest 1: General Science 2 3 4 A (^) B C D A BC D A BC D A BC D A (^) BC D 6 7 8 9 A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 15 11 12 13 14 10^ A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 20 16 17 18 19 25 21 22 23 24 A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 5 1 Subtest 5: Mathematics Knowledge 2 3 4 A B C D A BC D A (^) BC D A (^) BC D A BC D 6 7 8 9 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 15 11 12 13 14 10 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 20 16 17 18 19 25 21 22 23 24 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 5 1 Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning 2 3 4 A B C D A (^) BC D A BC D A BC D A BC D A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 15 13 14 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D 16 A B C D 17 18 20 19 29 25 26 27 28 21 22 23 24 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 6 A^ B^ C D 12 A^ B^ C D A 7 8 9 10 11 B C D A B C D 30 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 1 Subtest 4: Paragraph Comprehension 2 3 A BC D A BC D A BC D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 15 A B C D A B C D A B C D 5 1 Subtest 7: Auto & Shop Information 2 3 4 A B C D A (^) BC D A (^) BC D A (^) BC D A BC D 6 7 8 9 A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 15 11 12 13 14 10 A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 20 16 17 18 19 25 21 22 23 24 A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 1 Subtest 6: Electronics Information 2 3 A BC D A BC D A BC D A (^) BC D 6 5 7 8 A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 10 11 A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 13 14 15 17 18 19 A B C D A B C D A B C D 4^ A^ B C D 5 1 Subtest 8: Mechanical Comprehension 2 3 4 A (^) B C D A BC D A BC D A BC D A (^) BC D 6 7 8 9 A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 15 11 12 13 14 10^ A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 20 16 17 18 19 25 21 22 23 24 A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D 5 1 Subtest 9: Assembling Objects 2 3 4 A B C D A (^) BC D A BC D A BC D A BC D 6 7 8 9 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 15 11 12 13 14 10 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 20 16 17 18 19 25 21 22 23 24 A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 12 16 20 A B C D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 5 1 Subtest 3: Word Knowledge 2 3 4 A B C D A BC D A (^) BC D A (^) BC D A BC D A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 13 14 13 14 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 15 16 17 18 33 30 31 32 29 25 26 27 28 20 19 21 22 23 24 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D A B C D 6 5 4 6 8 7 9 A B C D A B C D A 12 8 9 10 11 12 10 11 B C D A B C D 34 A B C D 7 A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D 35 A B C D A B C D A (^) B C D A (^) B C D A B C D 9

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Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1

1. Which planet is named after the Greek god who personified the sky? (A) Earth (B) Mars (C) Pluto (D) Uranus
2. An animal that eats only meat is called a(n) (A) omnivore. (B) herbivore. (C) carnivore. (D) voracious.
3. The chemical process in which electrons are removed from a molecule is called (A) respiration. (B) recreation. (C) oxidation. (D) metabolism.
4. What is a single unit of quanta called? (A) quantum (B) quantumonium (C) quantus (D) quanfactorial
5. Light waves travel at a rate of about (A) 186,000 miles per hour. (B) 186,000 miles per minute. (C) 18,600 miles per hour. (D) 186,000 miles per second.
6. The largest planet in the solar system is (A) Earth. (B) Mars. (C) Saturn. (D) Jupiter. 7. The intestines are part of the (A) circulatory system. (B) nervous system. (C) respiratory system. (D) digestive system. 8. Joints that hold bones firmly together are called (A) hinge joints. (B) ball and socket joints. (C) fixed joints. (D) pivot joints. 9. Of the levels listed, the top or broadest level of the classification system for living organisms is called the (A) class. (B) phylum. (C) kingdom. (D) genus.
7. Which planet is the brightest object in the sky, aside from the sun and moon? (A) Saturn (B) Pluto (C) Venus (D) Mercury
8. The human heart includes (A) 2 chambers. (B) 3 chambers. (C) 4 chambers. (D) 5 chambers. Subtest 1: General Science Time: 11 minutes for 25 questions Directions: This subtest tests your knowledge of general science principles usually covered in high school classes. Pick the best answer for each question and then mark the space on your answer sheet that corresponds to the letter indicating your choice.

Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 195

25. Not counting the sun, the closest star to the Earth is (A) Rigel. (B) Proxima Centauri. (C) Antares. (D) Betelgeuse.
26. The atmosphere of Mars is composed mostly of (A) oxygen. (B) carbon dioxide. (C) helium. (D) Mars has no atmosphere. STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

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196 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

1. If a car is towed 12 miles to the repair shop and the tow charge is $3.50 per mile, how much does the tow cost? (A) $12. (B) $3. (C) $42. (D) $100.
2. The sum of two numbers is 70. One number is 8 more than the other. What’s the smaller number? (A) 31 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 36
3. A sales manager buys antacid in bottles by the gross. If he goes through 3 bottles of antacid every day, how long will the gross last? (A) 144 days (B) 3 days (C) 20 days (D) 48 days
4. Jenny’s test grades are 93, 89, 96, and 98. If she wishes to raise her average to 95, what does she need to score on her next test? (A) 100 (B) 99 (C) 97 (D) 95 5. A waitress earns an average tip of 12% of the cost of the food she serves. If she serves $375 worth of food in one evening, how much money in tips will she earn on average? (A) $ (B) $ (C) $ (D) $ 6. How many square feet of carpeting are needed to carpet a 12-foot x 12-foot room? (A) 24 (B) 120 (C) 48 (D) 144 7. Carpet stain protector costs $0.65 per square yard to apply. How much will it cost to apply the protector to a 16-foot x 18-foot carpet? (A) $187. (B) $62. (C) $20. (D) $96. 8. A printing plant that produces baseball cards has a monthly overhead of $6,000. It costs 18 cents to print each card, and the cards sell for 30 cents each. How many cards must the printing plant sell each month in order to make a profit? (A) 30, (B) 40, (C) 50, (D) 60, Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning Time: 36 minutes for 30 questions Directions: This test contains questions about arithmetic. Each question is followed by four possi- ble answers. Decide which answer is correct and then mark the space on your answer sheet that has the same number and letter as your choice. Use scratch paper for any figuring you want to do. A calculator is not allowed.

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198 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

24. Michael needs 55 gallons of paint to paint an apartment building. He would like to purchase the paint for the least amount of money possible. Which of the following should he buy? (A) two 25-gallon buckets at $550 each (B) eleven 5-gallon buckets at $108 each (C) six 10-gallon buckets at $215 each (D) fifty-five 1-gallon buckets at $23 each
25. As a member of FEMA, you’re required to set up a contingency plan to supply meals to residents of a town devastated by a tor- nado. A breakfast ration weighs 12 ounces and the lunch and dinner rations weigh 18 ounces each. Assuming a food truck can carry 3 tons and that each resident will receive 3 meals per day, how many resi- dents can you feed from one truck during a 10-day period? (A) 150 residents (B) 200 residents (C) 250 residents (D) 300 residents
26. A train headed south for Wichita left the station at the same time a train headed north for Des Moines left the same station. The train headed for Wichita traveled at 55 miles per hour. The train headed for Des Moines traveled at 70 miles per hour. How many miles apart are the trains at the end of 3 hours? (A) 210 miles (B) 165 miles (C) 125 miles (D) 375 miles
27. A carpenter needs to cut four sections, each 3 feet, 8 inches long, from a piece of molding. If the board is only sold by the foot, what’s the shortest length of board she can buy? (A) 15 feet (B) 14 feet (C) 16 feet (D) 12 feet
28. A carpenter earns $12.30 an hour for a 40-hour week. His overtime pay is times his base pay. If he puts in a 46-hour week, how much is his weekly pay? (A) $602. (B) $492. (C) $565. (D) $110.
29. An office building has 30 employees and provides 42 square feet of work space per employee. If five more employees are hired, how much less work space will each employee have? (A) 6 square feet (B) 7 square feet (C) 7.5 square feet (D) 36 square feet
30. Stan bought a monster truck for $2, down and payments of $450 a month for five years. What’s the total cost of the mon- ster truck? (A) $4, (B) $29, (C) $27, (D) $34,
31. Darla spent $120.37 on groceries in January, $108.45 in February, and $114. in March. What was the average monthly cost of Darla’s groceries? (A) $343. (B) $110. (C) $114. (D) $114.
32. Keith is driving from Reno to Kansas City to meet his girlfriend. The distance between the two cities is 1,650 miles. If Keith can average 50 miles per hour, how many hours will it take him to complete his trip? (A) 8 hours (B) 30 hours (C) 33 hours (D) 82 hours

Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 199

30. Your car uses gasoline at the rate of 21 miles per gallon. If gasoline costs $2.82 per gallon and you drive for 7 hours at a speed of 48 miles per hour, how much will you pay for gasoline for the trip? (A) $38. (B) $45. (C) $47. (D) 59.
31. Kiya had only one coupon for 10% off one frozen turkey breast. The turkey breasts cost $8.50 each, and Kiya wanted to buy two. How much did she pay? (A) $16. (B) $17. (C) $15. (D) $7.
32. A recruiter travels 1,100 miles during a 40-hour workweek. If she spends of her time traveling, how many hours does she spend traveling? (A) 22 (B) (C) 16 (D) 8 STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

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Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1

11. Licit most nearly means (A) historical. (B) lawful. (C) storied. (D) willfully.
12. Vacate most nearly means (A) crawl. (B) impel. (C) exhume. (D) leave.
13. The sergeant gave his reasoned opinion. (A) irate (B) logical (C) impressive (D) uninformed
14. Tacit most nearly means (A) loud. (B) understood. (C) commendable. (D) transparent.
15. The brass was not burnished. (A) yellow (B) dull (C) expensive (D) polished
16. The commodity was sold. (A) product (B) stock (C) idea (D) table
17. Her motives were contrived. (A) premeditated (B) emotional (C) obscure (D) amusing
    18. Supplicate most nearly means (A) make superior. (B) to be unnecessary. (C) to beg. (D) to be expansive.
    19. The word most opposite in meaning to hypocrisy is (A) honesty. (B) happy. (C) angry. (D) threatening.
    20. Bob found the peaches to be extremely succulent. (A) large (B) tasteless (C) old (D) juicy
    21. The Army soldiers were ordered to immediate garrison duty. (A) field (B) combat (C) latrine (D) fort
    22. Furtherance most nearly means (A) advancement. (B) finance. (C) practicality. (D) destruction.
    23. Domicile most nearly means (A) office. (B) shopping. (C) home. (D) vacation.
    24. Abrogate most nearly means (A) recover. (B) aid. (C) foreclose. (D) abolish.

202 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

31. Defray most nearly means (A) invade. (B) obstruct. (C) pay. (D) reverse.
32. Chasm most nearly means (A) abyss. (B) sky. (C) mountain. (D) valley.
33. Fundamental most nearly means (A) radical. (B) religious. (C) basic. (D) excessive.
34. Susceptible most nearly means (A) travel. (B) resistant. (C) limited. (D) vulnerable
35. Emblem most nearly means (A) symbol. (B) picture. (C) statue. (D) religion.
36. Compensation most nearly means (A) religion. (B) commission. (C) boathouse. (D) shower.
37. He gave a brusque account of the events. (A) passionate (B) lengthy (C) uncensored (D) concise
38. The vote resulted in the demise of the proposed new law. (A) passage (B) death (C) postponement (D) abatement
39. We commemorated our veterans during the ceremony. (A) denied (B) remembered (C) thanked (D) took pictures of
40. Bore most nearly means (A) deepen. (B) hide. (C) burrow. (D) jump.
41. That custom still prevails. (A) angers (B) persists (C) surprises (D) excites STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.

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204 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams The transistor, a small, solid-state device that can amplify sound, was invented in 1947. At first, it was too expensive and too difficult to produce to be used in cheap, mass-market prod- ucts. By 1954, though, these cost and production problems had been overcome, and the first tran- sistor radio was put on the market.

8. According to this passage, (A) there was no market for transistors before 1954. (B) when transistors could be produced cheaply and easily, the transistor radio was put on the market. (C) transistors were invented in 1947 by order of the Department of Defense. (D) transistors are still expensive to produce. I returned from the City about three o’clock on that May afternoon pretty well disgusted with life. I had been three months in the Old Country and was fed up with it. If people had told me a year ago that I would’ve been feeling like that I should’ve laughed at them; but there was the fact. The weather made me liverish, the talk of the ordinary Englishman made me sick, I couldn’t get enough exercise, and the amusements of London seemed as flat as soda water that had been standing in the sun.
9. The author is speaking of his travels in (A) Spain. (B) Great Britain. (C) Germany. (D) Scotland. Surveys show that the average child under the age of 18 watches four hours of television per day. Although some of the programming may be educational, most isn’t. Spending this much time watching television interferes with a child’s ability to pursue other interests, such as reading, participating in sports, and playing with friends.
10. The author of this passage would agree that (A) television viewing should be restricted. (B) parents who let their children watch this much television are neglectful. (C) reading, participating in sports, playing with friends, and watching television should all be given equal time. (D) adults over 18 can watch as much tele- vision as they want. The success or failure of a conference lies largely with its leader. A leader’s zest and enthu- siasm must be real, apparent, and contagious. The leader is responsible for getting the ball roll- ing and making the attendees feel as if the meet- ing is theirs and its success depends on their participation. A good, thorough introduction helps establish the right climate.
11. A good title to this paragraph would be (A) “Lead by Example.” (B) “The Importance of Proper Introductions.” (C) “Leading a Successful Conference.” (D) “Conference Participation Basics.” Cloud seeding is accomplished by dropping particles of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) from a plane onto super-cooled clouds. This process encourages condensation of water droplets in the clouds, which usually, but not always, results in rain or snow.
12. From this passage, it’s reasonable to assume that (A) cloud seeding could be used to end a drought. (B) cloud seeding is prohibitively expensive. (C) cloud seeding is rarely used. (D) cloud seeding can be accomplished by using regular ice. To write or not to write — that is the ques- tion. If assigned a writing task, there’s no option. However, if someone is looking for a specific answer, find out if they need a short answer or a detailed one. Can the requirement be met with a telephone call, e-mail, or short note, or is some- thing more necessary? A former CEO of a major corporation once commented that he had looked at 13,000 pieces of paper in a 5-day period. Think how much easier and more economical it would be if people would use the telephone, send an e-mail, or write a short note.
13. The main point of this passage is that (A) written records are important because they provide detailed documentation. (B) more businesspeople should invest time and energy improving their writing skills. (C) writing may not be the best way to communicate information. (D) it’s pointless for businesspeople to spend time improving their writing skills.

Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1 205 Due process, the guarantee of fairness in the administration of justice, is part of the 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. The 14th Amendment further requires states to abide by due process. After this amendment was enacted, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down many state laws that infringed on the civil rights guaranteed to citizens in the Bill of Rights.

13. According to the above passage, due process (A) is an outdated concept. (B) guarantees fairness in the justice system. (C) never became part of the U.S. Constitution. (D) is the process by which winning lottery tickets are selected.
14. According to the above passage, it’s rea- sonable to assume that the 5th Amendment (A) is about taxes. (B) guarantees due process in all criminal and civil cases. (C) guarantees due process in federal law. (D) should never have become part of the Bill of Rights.
15. The author of the above passage would agree that (A) without the passage of the 14th Amendment, many laws restricting civil rights would still exist in various states. (B) the Supreme Court overstepped its jurisdiction when it struck down laws infringing on citizens’ civil rights. (C) the Supreme Court had every right to strike down state laws before the pas- sage of the 14th Amendment. (D) the 14th Amendment was opposed by all states. High school and college graduates attempt- ing to find jobs should participate in mock job interviews. These mock interviews help students prepare for the types of questions they’ll be asked, make them more comfortable with common interview formats, and help them cri- tique their performance before facing a real interviewer. Because they’re such a valuable aid, schools should organize mock job interviews for all of their graduating students.
16. The above passage states that mock job interviews (A) frighten students. (B) should be offered to the best students. (C) help prepare students for real job interviews. (D) should be organized by students.
17. From the above passage, it is reasonable to assume that (A) mock interviews can increase a stu- dent’s confidence when he or she goes into a real job interview. (B) mock interviews are expensive to organize. (C) few students are interested in mock interviews. (D) students don’t need job interview preparation. STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST. Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage. Questions 13 through 15 are based on the following passage.

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Chapter 16: Practice Exam 1

13. Solve: 5! (A) 25 (B) 125 (C) 120 (D) 15
14. (900 × 2) ÷ 6 = (A) 30 (B) 300 (C) 150 (D) 3,
15. If x = 2, then xx ( x ) = (A) 8 (B) 2 xx (C) 4 (D) 6
16. If (5 + 1)(6 ÷ 3)(8 – 5) = (3 + 3) x, then x = (A) 12 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
17. (A) 56 (B) 15 (C) 42 (D) 3,
18. Which of the following fractions is the largest? (A) (B) (C) (D)
19. If 2 + x ≥ 4, then x ≥ (A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D)
    20. If a circle has a radius of 12 feet, what’s its circumference most nearly? (A) 24 feet (B) 72 feet (C) 75 feet (D) 36 feet
    21. An aquarium measures 16 inches long x 8 inches deep x 18 inches high. What’s its volume? (A) 2,304 cubic inches (B) 128 cubic inches (C) 42 cubic inches (D) 288 cubic inches
    22. Triangle ABC is a(n) A C B 1 2 3 (A) right triangle. (B) obtuse triangle. (C) equilateral triangle. (D) isosceles triangle.
    23. The sum of the measures of the angles of a trapezoid is (A) 360 degrees. (B) 540 degrees. (C) 180 degrees. (D) 720 degrees.

208 Part V: Practice ASVAB Exams

25. Convert 24% to a fraction. (A) (B) (C) (D)
26. Angles 1 and 2 are 2 1 (A) supplementary. (B) complementary. (C) both obtuse. (D) both right angles. STOP DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO. DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.