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Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which CALMS component emphasizes “blameless post-mortems” and shared ownership? A) Automation B) Lean C) Culture D) Measurement Answer: C Explanation: Culture in CALMS promotes collaborative, blameless practices and shared responsibility for outcomes. Question 2. In DORA metrics, which metric measures the speed from code commit to production deployment? A) Mean Time to Restore (MTTR) B) Lead Time for Changes C) Deployment Frequency D) Change Failure Rate Answer: B Explanation: Lead Time for Changes is the elapsed time between a commit and its successful deployment. Question 3. Which Lean principle focuses on eliminating “Muda” in a software delivery pipeline? A) Continuous Learning B) Waste Reduction C) Automation D) Sharing Answer: B
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Explanation: “Muda” is Japanese for waste; Lean aims to identify and remove it. Question 4. Limiting Work-In-Progress (WIP) primarily improves which DevOps flow principle? A) Feedback B) Continuous Learning C) Value Flow D) Measurement Answer: C Explanation: Reducing WIP smooths the flow of value through the system. Question 5. A “dark launch” is best described as: A) Deploying to production with feature flags turned off B) Deploying to a staging environment only C) Running a canary release to all users D) Rolling back automatically on failure Answer: A Explanation: Dark launches push code to production but keep new functionality hidden until toggled. Question 6. Which Git command is used to replay a series of commits onto a new base? A) cherry-pick B) rebase C) bisect D) merge
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D) Smoke test Answer: B Explanation: Integration tests verify interactions between components. Question 10. Test Data Management (TDM) primarily addresses which pipeline concern? A) Artifact versioning B) Secure secret storage C) Consistent, realistic data for automated tests D) Container orchestration Answer: C Explanation: TDM ensures test environments have appropriate data sets. Question 11. In Jenkins, which directive creates a separate stage for security scanning? A) agent any B) post C) stage('Security Scan') D) environment Answer: C Explanation: Defining a stage('Security Scan') isolates that step in the pipeline. Question 12. Conditional execution based on branch name in GitHub Actions is achieved with: A) if: github.ref == 'refs/heads/main' B) when: branch == 'main' C) only: master
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D) on: push Answer: A Explanation: The if expression evaluates the branch reference. Question 13. An immutable artifact is best described as: A) A Docker image that can be edited after push B) A compiled binary that never changes once versioned C) A script that updates itself during deployment D) A mutable configuration file stored in Git Answer: B Explanation: Immutable artifacts are never altered after creation, ensuring reproducibility. Question 14. Which repository type is optimized for storing large binary packages like Docker images? A) GitHub B) Maven Central C) Nexus D) Artifactory Answer: D Explanation: Artifactory (or similar) efficiently stores container images and other binaries. Question 15. In a blue/green deployment, traffic is switched from blue to green after: A) All green instances pass health checks B) The blue environment is deleted C) Canary analysis completes
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D) Initialize providers Answer: B Explanation: terraform fmt reformats .tf files for readability. Question 19. Which Ansible feature guarantees idempotent execution? A) --check mode B) become flag C) Declarative tasks that report “changed” only when needed D) Dynamic inventory scripts Answer: C Explanation: Ansible modules are designed to report unchanged when the desired state already exists. Question 20. When storing secrets in Ansible Vault, the secret is: A) Stored in plain text on the controller B) Encrypted with a password and can be decrypted at runtime C) Exposed via environment variables only D) Ignored by the playbook execution engine Answer: B Explanation: Vault encrypts files using a password, decrypted when needed. Question 21. In a multi-stage Dockerfile, which instruction typically reduces final image size the most? A) FROM alpine as the last stage B) COPY. /app in the first stage C) RUN apt-get update && apt-get install -y build-essential in the final stage
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D) EXPOSE 8080
Answer: A Explanation: Using a minimal base image in the final stage discards build-time dependencies. Question 22. Docker volumes are primarily used for: A) Reducing image layers B) Persisting data beyond container lifecycle C) Network isolation D) Building multi-arch images Answer: B Explanation: Volumes store data independently of container lifetimes. Question 23. Docker Compose is best suited for: A) Orchestrating thousands of nodes in production B) Defining multi-service local development environments C) Managing serverless functions D) Building Docker images without a Dockerfile Answer: B Explanation: Compose simplifies local multi-container setups. Question 24. In Kubernetes, a Pod’s “restartPolicy: OnFailure” means: A) Pods are never restarted B) Pods restart only when containers exit with non-zero status C) Pods restart on any termination, including successful exits D) Pods are restarted by the node controller only
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Question 28. Prometheus stores metrics as: A) Logs in Elasticsearch B) Time-series data in a local TSDB C) Traces in Jaeger D) Dashboard JSON files Answer: B Explanation: Prometheus uses a built-in time-series database. Question 29. Which Prometheus metric type is best for measuring request latency distribution? A) Counter B) Gauge C) Histogram D) Summary Answer: C Explanation: Histograms bucket values, enabling latency percentile calculations. Question 30. The ELK stack’s “K” stands for: A) Kafka B) Kibana C) Kubernetes D) Key-Value store Answer: B Explanation: Kibana visualizes logs stored in Elasticsearch.
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Question 31. Structured logging improves observability by: A) Reducing log file size B) Enabling consistent parsing and querying of log fields C) Encrypting log data at rest D) Eliminating the need for log aggregation Answer: B Explanation: Structured logs (e.g., JSON) make automated analysis easier. Question 32. Distributed tracing tools like Jaeger help developers understand: A) CPU usage per pod B) End-to-end request flow across microservices C) Disk I/O performance D) Network packet loss Answer: B Explanation: Tracing visualizes the path and latency of a request through services. Question 33. An SLI is: A) A contractual penalty for downtime B) A quantitative measure of a service’s reliability or performance C) A feature flag configuration file D) A monitoring dashboard template Answer: B Explanation: Service Level Indicators quantify specific aspects of service health.
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Question 37. PagerDuty’s “escalation policy” defines: A) The order in which alerts are routed to on-call responders B) How to scale Kubernetes pods automatically C) The deployment strategy for blue/green releases D) The versioning scheme for Docker images Answer: A Explanation: Escalation policies specify who is notified after initial responders fail to acknowledge. Question 38. A Grafana dashboard that shows CPU usage, request latency, and error rate is an example of: A) A logging pipeline B) An observability dashboard that combines multiple pillars C) A CI/CD pipeline visualization D) A secret management UI Answer: B Explanation: It integrates metrics (CPU, latency) and logs/errors for holistic monitoring. Question 39. Which of the following is NOT a typical metric type in Prometheus? A) Counter B) Gauge C) Histogram D) Logline Answer: D
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Explanation: “Logline” is not a Prometheus metric type; logs are handled elsewhere. Question 40. In the Three Ways of DevOps, “Continuous Learning and Experimentation” is primarily supported by: A) Automated rollback mechanisms B) Value stream mapping C) Blameless post-mortems and hypothesis-driven testing D) Strict change-approval boards Answer: C Explanation: Learning stems from safe experiments and blameless analysis of outcomes. Question 41. Which of the following best describes “Feature Flag” usage in CI/CD? A) A method to store secrets in Git B) A runtime toggle that enables or disables functionality without redeploying C) A version control branching strategy D) A Kubernetes network policy Answer: B Explanation: Feature flags let you turn features on/off in production dynamically. Question 42. A “trunk-based development” workflow typically encourages: A) Long-lived feature branches lasting weeks B) Frequent commits to a single main branch with short-lived feature toggles
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A) Terraform B) Ansible C) AWS CloudFormation D) Pulumi Answer: C Explanation: CloudFormation defines AWS resources with JSON/YAML templates. Question 46. Terraform’s “taint” command is used to: A) Mark a resource for recreation on the next apply B) Delete the state file C) Encrypt variables D) Lock the state backend Answer: A Explanation: terraform taint forces a resource to be destroyed and rebuilt. Question 47. In Kubernetes, a “ConfigMap” is used to: A) Store confidential data encrypted at rest B) Provide non-secret configuration data to pods as environment variables or files C) Define pod scheduling policies D) Manage persistent volumes Answer: B Explanation: ConfigMaps hold plain-text configuration that pods can consume.
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Question 48. Which Kubernetes resource ensures that a set of pods is always running the desired number of replicas? A) Service B) Deployment C) Ingress D) PersistentVolumeClaim Answer: B Explanation: Deployments manage ReplicaSets to maintain the specified replica count. Question 49. A “rolling update” in Kubernetes is performed by: A) Deleting the entire Deployment and recreating it B) Incrementally replacing pods with new versions while keeping the service available C) Switching traffic to a parallel green environment D) Using a job to copy data between clusters Answer: B Explanation: Rolling updates replace pods gradually, preserving availability. Question 50. In a CI/CD pipeline, “retry logic” is most appropriate for: A) Compilation steps that always succeed B) Flaky integration tests that may fail due to transient issues C) Deployments that must never be retried D) Manual approval gates Answer: B Explanation: Retrying flaky tests can reduce false negatives caused by temporary problems.
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Question 54. In SRE, the “burn rate” refers to: A) The speed at which new code is written B) The rate at which an error budget is consumed C) The frequency of backup jobs D) The CPU usage of a pod Answer: B Explanation: Burn rate measures how quickly the error budget is being used up. Question 55. Which alert condition is less likely to cause “alert fatigue”? A) Triggering on every 5xx HTTP response B) Alerting only when error rate exceeds a defined threshold for 5 minutes C) Sending an alert for each log entry containing the word “error” D) Not aggregating similar alerts Answer: B Explanation: Thresholds with a time window reduce noisy, transient alerts. Question 56. A “service mesh” primarily provides: A) Centralized logging storage B) Uniform traffic management, security, and observability for microservices C) Automated Terraform state backups D) Container image scanning Answer: B Explanation: Service meshes (e.g., Istio) handle routing, mTLS, and telemetry across services.
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Question 57. Which metric best indicates the reliability of a deployment pipeline? A) Number of lines of code written per day B) Change Failure Rate (percentage of deployments causing incidents) C) Size of Docker images D) Number of Git branches Answer: B Explanation: Change Failure Rate measures how often deployments introduce failures. Question 58. In Git, the git cherry-pick command is used to: A) Merge two branches automatically B) Apply a specific commit from one branch onto another C) Delete a commit from history D) Rebase an entire branch onto master Answer: B Explanation: Cherry-pick copies a single commit onto the current HEAD. Question 59. Which of the following statements about “blue/green” and “canary” deployments is true? A) Both require two full production environments at all times B) Canary releases gradually shift traffic, while blue/green switches all traffic at once C) Blue/green deployments never need health checks D) Canary releases cannot be rolled back automatically Answer: B Explanation: Canary shifts a portion of traffic incrementally; blue/green switches all traffic at once.
