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computer technology Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which component on a motherboard determines the type of CPU socket that can be used? A) Northbridge B) Southbridge C) Chipset D) Power delivery circuit Answer: C Explanation: The chipset defines the CPU socket compatibility, along with supported processor families. Question 2. DDR5 RAM differs from DDR4 primarily in which characteristic? A) Uses a 64-bit data bus per module B) Operates at a lower voltage C) Has twice the maximum module density D) Requires a separate cooling fan Answer: C Explanation: DDR5 supports up to 128 GB per DIMM, roughly double the maximum density of DDR4. Question 3. Which storage interface provides the lowest latency for a consumer SSD? A) SATA III 6 Gb/s B) mSATA C) PCIe 3.0 ×4 NVMe D) USB 3.2 Gen 2x Answer: C
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Explanation: PCIe 3.0 ×4 NVMe SSDs use four PCIe lanes, delivering far lower latency than SATA or USB interfaces. Question 4. A PSU rated at 80 PLUS Gold must achieve at least what efficiency at a 50 % load? A) 85 % B) 87 % C) 90 % D) 92 % Answer: B Explanation: 80 PLUS Gold certification requires ≥87 % efficiency at 50 % load. Question 5. When installing a new graphics card, which BIOS setting is most likely to need adjustment? A) Secure Boot B) VT-d C) PCIe slot speed D) Legacy USB support Answer: C Explanation: The BIOS may need the PCIe slot configured for the correct generation (e.g., Gen 3) to match the card’s capabilities. Question 6. Which of the following is a primary advantage of an SSD over an HDD? A) Higher areal density B) No moving parts, resulting in faster random read/write C) Lower cost per gigabyte
computer technology Ultimate Exam
C) Mini-DisplayPort D) VGA Answer: C Explanation: Mini-DisplayPort can be converted to HDMI with an active adapter; other connectors are unrelated. Question 10. A laptop’s inverter is most closely associated with which component? A) SSD B) LCD backlight C) Wi-Fi card D) Keyboard controller Answer: B Explanation: The inverter supplies AC power to the LCD backlight’s CCFL tubes. Question 11. Which Wi-Fi standard first introduced the 5 GHz band? A) 802.11a B) 802.11b C) 802.11g D) 802.11n Answer: A Explanation: 802.11a operates only in the 5 GHz spectrum; later standards added dual-band support. Question 12. What is the maximum payload size for an IPv4 packet without fragmentation? A) 1500 bytes
computer technology Ultimate Exam
B) 1460 bytes C) 1472 bytes D) 1492 bytes Answer: B Explanation: The typical Ethernet MTU is 1500 bytes; subtracting 20 bytes IP header and 20 bytes TCP header leaves 1460 bytes of TCP payload. Question 13. Which TCP port is used by the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol? A) 20 B) 22 C) 23 D) 25 Answer: B Explanation: SSH operates on TCP port 22. Question 14. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible for end-to-end reliability? A) Network B) Data Link C) Transport D) Session Answer: C Explanation: The Transport layer (TCP) provides reliable data transfer. Question 15. Which Windows command lists all active network connections and listening ports? A) ipconfig /all
computer technology Ultimate Exam
B) Translate domain names to IP addresses C) Encrypt network traffic D) Route packets between subnets Answer: B Explanation: DNS resolves human-readable domain names into IP addresses. Question 19. Which of the following best describes the principle of least privilege? A) Users should have admin rights on all systems. B) Access rights are granted only as needed for job functions. C) All users share a common password. D) System services run with full system privileges. Answer: B Explanation: Least privilege limits permissions to the minimum required for tasks. Question 20. Which type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and demands payment for the decryption key? A) Trojan B) Ransomware C) Spyware D) Worm Answer: B Explanation: Ransomware holds data hostage by encrypting it. Question 21. In a Windows environment, which tool is used to manage Group Policy Objects?
computer technology Ultimate Exam
A) Event Viewer B) Device Manager C) gpedit.msc D) regedit.exe Answer: C Explanation: gpedit.msc opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Question 22. Which PowerShell cmdlet retrieves information about the system’s BIOS version? A) Get-ComputerInfo B) Get-WmiObject -Class Win32_BIOS C) Get-Process -Name BIOS D) Get-ItemProperty -Path HKLM:\BIOS Answer: B Explanation: Get-WmiObject -Class Win32_BIOS queries BIOS details. Question 23. Which of the following is a non-volatile storage technology used in modern smartphones? A) DRAM B) SRAM C) eMMC D) Cache memory Answer: C Explanation: eMMC (embedded MultiMediaCard) provides flash storage for mobile devices.
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Question 27. In a firewall rule set, what does the term “stateful inspection” refer to? A) Filtering based only on source IP address B) Maintaining connection context to allow return traffic automatically C) Blocking all outbound traffic by default D) Performing deep packet inspection of encrypted payloads Answer: B Explanation: Stateful inspection tracks the state of connections, allowing legitimate return packets. Question 28. Which of the following protocols is used to securely retrieve email from a mail server? A) POP B) IMAP C) SMTP over TLS (SMTPS) D) FTP Answer: C Explanation: SMTPS (SMTP over TLS) secures email transmission; POP3 and IMAP can also be secured with TLS but the question asks for a secure protocol, and SMTPS explicitly includes encryption. Question 29. What is the purpose of the “/etc/shadow” file in Linux? A) Stores user passwords in plain text B) Holds encrypted password hashes and aging information C) Lists all mounted filesystems D) Contains system startup scripts Answer: B
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Explanation: /etc/shadow stores hashed passwords and related policies, restricting access to privileged users. Question 30. Which of the following backup strategies performs a full backup weekly and incremental backups daily? A) Grandfather-father-son B) Differential backup C) 3- 2 - 1 backup rule D) Incremental-only backup Answer: B Explanation: Differential backups copy all changes since the last full backup; combined with a weekly full backup, daily differentials meet the description. Question 31. Which command in Windows can be used to check the integrity of system files? A) sfc /scannow B) chkdsk /f C) dism /online /cleanup-image /restorehealth D) ipconfig /flushdns Answer: A Explanation: sfc /scannow scans and repairs protected system files. Question 32. In a virtualized environment, which component abstracts physical network adapters for guest VMs? A) Virtual Switch (vSwitch) B) Hypervisor kernel C) Guest OS driver D) Physical NIC firmware
computer technology Ultimate Exam
B) Recording → Detection → Classification → Resolution → Investigation → Closure C) Detection → Classification → Recording → Investigation → Resolution → Closure D) Detection → Recording → Investigation → Classification → Resolution → Closure Answer: A Explanation: ITIL defines the flow as detection, recording, classification, investigation, resolution, then closure. Question 36. Which of the following is a physical security control that helps prevent unauthorized removal of a server? A) BIOS password B) Rack-mount locking brackets C) Network ACLs D) Antivirus software Answer: B Explanation: Locking brackets physically secure the server in a rack. Question 37. Which of the following cloud service models provides the most control over the operating system and runtime environment? A) SaaS B) PaaS C) IaaS D) DaaS Answer: C Explanation: IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) supplies virtual hardware, letting users manage OS, middleware, and applications.
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Question 38. In a Windows Active Directory environment, which object type is used to apply permissions to a group of users? A. Organizational Unit (OU) B. Security Group C. Distribution Group D. Computer Account Answer: B Explanation: Security groups are used in ACLs to grant permissions to multiple users. Question 39. Which of the following describes the function of an anti-spam filter in an email system? A) Scans attachments for viruses only B) Blocks inbound email based on known spam signatures and heuristics C) Encrypts outgoing email messages D) Redirects all email to a quarantine folder Answer: B Explanation: Anti-spam filters evaluate message content, headers, and reputation to block spam. Question 40. Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to measure the temperature of a CPU in real time? A) Task Manager B) BIOS/UEFI hardware monitor C) Disk Defragmenter D) Network Monitor Answer: B
computer technology Ultimate Exam
D) docker container ls –all Answer: A Explanation: docker ps -a shows all containers, including stopped ones. Question 44. Which of the following describes a “cold” backup strategy? A) Backups performed while the system is running B) Backups taken after shutting down the system or application C) Backups that use incremental snapshots D) Backups stored on cloud storage only Answer: B Explanation: A cold backup is taken when the system is offline, ensuring data consistency. Question 45. Which Windows feature provides a sandboxed environment for running potentially unsafe applications? A) Hyper-V B) Windows Sandbox C) Device Guard D) BitLocker Answer: B Explanation: Windows Sandbox creates a temporary, isolated desktop for testing untrusted software. Question 46. Which of the following is the default subnet mask for a Class B IPv4 network? A) 255.0.0. B) 255.255.0.
computer technology Ultimate Exam
C) 255.255.255.
D) 255.255.255.
Answer: B Explanation: Class B networks use a 16-bit mask: 255.255.0.0. Question 47. Which of the following protocols is used by network devices to automatically discover the MAC address associated with an IP address? A) ARP B) RARP C) DHCP D) ICMP Answer: A Explanation: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network. Question 48. Which of the following is a symptom of a failing hard disk drive? A) Sudden loss of Wi-Fi connectivity B) Frequent blue screen errors with disk-related stop codes C) Keyboard backlight flickering D) Monitor displaying “No signal” Answer: B Explanation: Disk-related BSODs often indicate hardware failure in the HDD. Question 49. Which of the following best describes the function of a “heat sink” on a CPU? A) Converts electrical energy to heat
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Question 52. Which of the following is the correct way to safely discharge static electricity before handling a PC component? A) Touch the metal chassis of the powered-on computer B) Use an anti-static wrist strap grounded to the workstation C) Spray the component with compressed air D) Wear rubber gloves Answer: B Explanation: An anti-static wrist strap provides a low-impedance path to ground, preventing ESD. Question 53. Which of the following is the most secure method for storing passwords on a Windows workstation? A) Storing them in a plain-text file on the desktop B) Using the Credential Manager with encrypted storage C) Writing them on a sticky note attached to the monitor D) Saving them in the browser’s “Remember Password” feature only Answer: B Explanation: Credential Manager encrypts stored credentials, offering better security than the other options. Question 54. Which of the following describes the function of “port forwarding” on a router? A) Blocking inbound traffic on a specific port B) Translating a public IP address to a private one C) Directing inbound traffic on a specific port to an internal host D) Encrypting traffic on a designated port Answer: C
computer technology Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Port forwarding maps incoming traffic on a given port to a specific internal IP address. Question 55. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “thin client” in a VDI environment? A) Runs a full local operating system with local applications B) Relies on a central server for processing and storage C) Requires a high-performance GPU for graphics D) Stores user data locally on a hard drive Answer: B Explanation: Thin clients offload processing to a remote server, keeping only minimal local resources. Question 56. Which of the following is the most appropriate action when a user reports that a website is loading slowly, but other sites load normally? A) Replace the user’s network cable B) Flush the DNS cache on the user’s machine C) Reinstall the web browser D) Increase the user’s Wi-Fi signal strength Answer: B Explanation: A stale DNS entry can cause slow resolution for a specific site; flushing the cache can resolve it. Question 57. Which of the following file extensions indicates a macOS application bundle? A) .exe B) .app C) .dmg
