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Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Question 1. Which Scrum role is primarily accountable for delivering a potentially releasable Increment each Sprint? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C) Developers D) Stakeholder Answer: C Explanation: Developers own the creation of the Increment and ensure it meets the Definition of Done. Question 2. In Scrum, who is responsible for maintaining the Product Backlog and ensuring its items are clearly expressed? A) Developers B) Scrum Master C) Product Owner D) Agile Coach Answer: C Explanation: The Product Owner owns the Product Backlog and works on refinement and clarity. Question 3. What is the main purpose of the Daily Scrum? A) To assign tasks for the day B) To review the Definition of Done C) To inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapt the plan D) To demo the Increment to stakeholders Answer: C
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Explanation: The Daily Scrum is a short inspection meeting for the team to synchronize and adjust. Question 4. Which artifact represents the agreed-upon set of criteria that a product increment must satisfy to be considered complete? A) Sprint Goal B) Definition of Done C) Product Backlog D) Increment Answer: B Explanation: The Definition of Done defines the quality and completeness standards for an Increment. Question 5. During Sprint Planning, the team creates a Sprint Backlog. Which of the following best describes its content? A) All product backlog items for the project B) A detailed technical design of the entire system C) The selected Product Backlog items plus a plan for delivering them D) Only the tasks assigned to each developer Answer: C Explanation: The Sprint Backlog includes the items committed for the Sprint and the plan to achieve them. Question 6. In the context of clean code, which principle most directly reduces cognitive load for readers? A) DRY B) Meaningful naming C) YAGNI
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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C) Refactor existing code D) Run all integration tests Answer: B Explanation: TDD starts with a failing test that defines the desired behavior. Question 10. Which of the following is a common test smell? A) Tests that run in parallel B) Tests that depend on external services C) Tests that use descriptive method names D) Tests written in the same language as production code Answer: B Explanation: External dependencies make tests brittle and slow. Question 11. Which SOLID principle states that a class should have only one reason to change? A) Open/Closed B) Liskov Substitution C) Single Responsibility D) Interface Segregation Answer: C Explanation: Single Responsibility Principle (SRP) limits a class to one responsibility. Question 12. The Open/Closed Principle encourages: A) Extending behavior without modifying existing code B) Keeping all classes open for modification
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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C) Writing only closed-source libraries D) Avoiding inheritance completely Answer: A Explanation: Software entities should be open for extension but closed for modification. Question 13. In the context of design, YAGNI stands for: A) You Aren’t Going to Need It B) Yet Another Generic Interface C) Your Application Generates New Instances D) Yielding All Generated Interfaces Answer: A Explanation: YAGNI cautions against implementing features before they are truly needed. Question 14. Which practice helps keep the codebase free of duplication? A) DRY B) KISS C) SOLID D) TDD Answer: A Explanation: DRY (Don’t Repeat Yourself) encourages reuse instead of copying code. Question 15. In continuous integration, what triggers an automated build? A) A weekly schedule
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Question 18. Specification by Example uses which of the following to capture requirements? A) High-level user stories without details B) Concrete, executable examples written in a ubiquitous language C) Architectural diagrams only D) Abstract mathematical models Answer: B Explanation: Concrete examples are written in a language understood by both business and tech. Question 19. Pair programming provides all of the following benefits EXCEPT: A) Real-time code review B) Knowledge sharing C) Increased development speed for all tasks D) Higher code quality Answer: C Explanation: While quality improves, pair programming does not guarantee faster overall delivery. Question 20. In mob programming, who writes the code? A) The most senior developer only B) The designated “driver” while the whole team guides C) Every team member writes simultaneously on separate keyboards D) The Scrum Master Answer: B Explanation: One driver types while the entire mob collaborates on decisions.
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Question 21. Collective code ownership means: A) Only the architect can modify core modules B) Every team member may change any part of the codebase C) Code is owned by the product owner D) Ownership is assigned per file Answer: B Explanation: The whole team shares responsibility for all code. Question 22. Cross-skilling in a Scrum team aims to: A) Create specialist silos for efficiency B) Enable team members to handle any backlog item C) Reduce the need for a Product Owner D) Increase the number of story points per sprint Answer: B Explanation: Cross-skilling removes bottlenecks by making the team versatile. Question 23. Which metric visualizes work remaining versus time in a Sprint? A) Cumulative Flow Diagram B) Velocity Chart C) Burn-down Chart D) Lead Time Histogram Answer: C Explanation: Burn-down charts plot remaining effort against the Sprint timeline.
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Explanation: Emergent architecture evolves iteratively rather than being fully specified early. Question 27. In version control, the “single source of truth” principle recommends: A) Maintaining multiple master branches for each feature B) Keeping all changes in a single, authoritative branch (e.g., main) and merging from feature branches C) Using separate repositories for each microservice without integration D) Allowing developers to commit directly to production Answer: B Explanation: A single source of truth ensures consistency and reduces merge conflicts. Question 28. Which branching strategy is most aligned with Scrum’s iterative delivery? A) Long-lived release branches for each sprint B) Feature-branch per user story, merged back via pull request after completion C) No branching; all work on the main branch only D) Branch per developer for the entire project Answer: B Explanation: Short-lived feature branches support incremental delivery and frequent integration. Question 29. A “test smell” that indicates a test is doing too much is: A) A test that runs in under 10 ms B) A test that asserts multiple unrelated behaviors C) A test with a descriptive name
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D) A test that uses mocking frameworks Answer: B Explanation: Tests should verify a single behavior; multiple assertions across domains make them brittle. Question 30. When applying the Liskov Substitution Principle, which situation violates it? A) Subclass overrides a method with a more restrictive precondition B) Subclass adds new methods not present in the base class C) Subclass calls the base class constructor D) Subclass implements an interface Answer: A Explanation: Substituting a subclass should not require callers to meet stricter conditions. Question 31. Which of the following statements about the Definition of Done (DoD) is true? A) It is optional for each Scrum team. B) It must be identical for every product in an organization. C) It can evolve over time as the team learns. D) It only applies to the final release, not each Increment. Answer: C Explanation: Teams regularly refine the DoD to improve quality. Question 32. In Scrum, the Sprint Goal serves to: A) List all tasks for the Sprint
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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A) Story points are absolute and can be directly billed to clients B) They encourage relative sizing and avoid false precision C. They guarantee exact delivery dates D. They eliminate the need for any discussion during refinement Answer: B Explanation: Story points promote relative estimation and abstract away time units. Question 36. Which of the following best illustrates the “YAGNI” principle in practice? A) Building a generic reporting module before any reporting requirement exists B) Implementing a login feature only after the product owner requests it C. Writing a single-purpose function that does exactly what is needed now D. Refactoring code to support a future API version that may never be used Answer: C Explanation: YAGNI warns against adding unnecessary functionality. Question 37. In a Scrum team, who is responsible for removing impediments that are technical in nature? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C) Developers D. Stakeholder Answer: B Explanation: The Scrum Master helps resolve both process and technical impediments.
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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Question 38. Which of the following is a core benefit of pair programming? A) Eliminates the need for code reviews later B) Guarantees zero defects in the codebase C) Provides continuous, on-the-spot feedback and knowledge transfer D. Allows developers to work completely independently Answer: C Explanation: Pair programming gives immediate review and shared learning. Question 39. When a team practices collective code ownership, which of the following is true? A) Only senior developers may edit core modules B) Any team member can refactor any part of the code without seeking permission C) Code is locked after each sprint D) Ownership is assigned per feature Answer: B Explanation: Collective ownership encourages anyone to improve any part of the code. Question 40. Which Scrum event is time-boxed to a maximum of 15 minutes for a one-month Sprint? A) Sprint Review B) Sprint Retrospective C) Daily Scrum D) Sprint Planning Answer: C Explanation: The Daily Scrum is a 15-minute time-boxed event.
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Explanation: Continuous deployment pushes every passing change to production automatically. Question 44. Which of the following is an example of a “test double” used in unit testing? A) A real database connection B) A mock object that simulates a service interface C. An end-to-end UI test script D. A performance benchmark Answer: B Explanation: Mocks, stubs, fakes, and spies are test doubles that replace real collaborators. Question 45. When estimating using T-shirt sizing, what does a “Large” size typically indicate? A. The item will take exactly one day to complete B. The item is more complex or larger than a “Medium” but less than an “Extra-Large” C. The item must be split into multiple stories D. The item is not prioritized Answer: B Explanation: T-shirt sizes provide relative magnitude without precise time. Question 46. Which of the following best describes “incremental delivery”? A) Building the whole system in one massive release B) Releasing small, functional pieces of the product regularly C. Delivering only documentation first
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D. Waiting until all features are complete before any release Answer: B Explanation: Incremental delivery provides value early and often. Question 47. Which Scrum artifact provides transparency about what will be delivered next? A) Sprint Backlog B) Definition of Done C) Product Increment D. Product Backlog Answer: D Explanation: The Product Backlog lists upcoming items and their order. Question 48. In a Scrum team, who is primarily responsible for ensuring that the Increment meets the Definition of Done? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C. Developers D. Stakeholders Answer: C Explanation: Developers verify that each Increment satisfies the DoD. Question 49. Which practice helps mitigate the risk of “integration hell” in a multi-team environment? A) Each team works on its own repository without merging B) Regularly integrating code into a shared main branch via CI
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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D. Is managed by a traditional project manager Answer: B Explanation: Self-management empowers the team to organize its own work. Question 53. Which of the following best illustrates the Interface Segregation Principle? A) A class implements a massive interface containing methods it never uses B) Clients depend only on the methods they actually need, via small, specific interfaces C. All classes inherit from a single base class D. An interface is defined with default implementations for all methods Answer: B Explanation: ISP advises splitting large interfaces into client-specific ones. Question 54. Which metric should a Scrum team avoid using as a performance evaluation tool? A) Sprint Goal success rate B) Velocity C. Number of completed story points per Sprint D. Team satisfaction surveys Answer: B Explanation: Velocity is a planning tool, not a performance measure. Question 55. In a typical CI pipeline, which stage should run after compilation but before deployment? A) Automated unit testing
Developer Certification PSD Ultimate
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B. Code formatting C. Post-deployment monitoring D. Documentation generation Answer: A Explanation: Unit tests validate compiled code before it proceeds further. Question 56. Which of the following is NOT a typical benefit of mob programming? A) Faster onboarding of new team members B) Immediate collective code ownership C) Reduction of all code review steps D. Increased risk of knowledge silos Answer: D Explanation: Mob programming reduces silos; it does not increase them. Question 57. When a Scrum team uses “Definition of Ready” (DoR), it primarily ensures that: A) Items are fully implemented before the Sprint starts B) Backlog items meet criteria that make them actionable for the Sprint C. The Increment is always releasable D. The Product Owner can skip Sprint Planning Answer: B Explanation: DoR defines when a backlog item is ready to be selected. Question 58. Which of the following statements about “technical spikes” is correct?
