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Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Question 1. Which activity primarily concerns the identification of stakeholders and their goals during the requirements phase? A) Requirements validation B) Requirements elicitation C) Requirements specification D) Requirements negotiation Answer: B Explanation: Elicitation is the process of gathering requirements from stakeholders, including identifying who they are and what they need. Question 2. In the IEEE 830 standard for an SRS, which section typically contains functional requirements? A) Introduction B) Overall description C) Specific requirements D) Appendices Answer: C Explanation: The “Specific requirements” section details the functional and non-functional requirements of the system. Question 3. Which of the following is a common technique for uncovering hidden requirements? A) Use-case modeling B) Prototyping C) Code inspection D) Regression testing Answer: B
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Prototyping allows stakeholders to interact with a mock-up, often revealing requirements that were not initially expressed. Question 4. A requirements traceability matrix is most useful for: A) Managing configuration items B) Mapping requirements to design elements and test cases C) Estimating project cost D) Conducting risk analysis Answer: B Explanation: Traceability matrices link each requirement to its downstream artifacts, ensuring coverage throughout development. Question 5. Which quality attribute is most directly addressed by the use of design patterns such as Singleton or Factory? A) Performance B) Modifiability C) Security D) Availability Answer: B Explanation: Design patterns promote reusable and maintainable structures, enhancing the system’s ability to be modified. Question 6. The “Layered” architectural style primarily helps to achieve which quality attribute? A) Fault tolerance B) Scalability C) Modularity D) Real-time response
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
B) Redundant components C) Data compression D) Single-sign-on authentication Answer: B Explanation: Redundancy (e.g., replicated modules) allows a system to continue operating despite component failures. Question 10. Which design notation captures the static structure of a system? A) Activity diagram B) State-transition diagram C) Class diagram D) Use-case diagram Answer: C Explanation: Class diagrams depict classes, attributes, operations, and relationships, representing static structure. Question 11. The “Open/Closed Principle” is a guideline that states software entities should be: A) Open for extension, closed for modification B) Open for modification, closed for extension C) Open for both extension and modification D) Closed for both extension and modification Answer: A Explanation: The principle encourages adding new behavior without altering existing code, supporting maintainability.
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Question 12. Which of the following is NOT a typical activity in the construction phase? A) Unit testing B) Code review C) Requirements elicitation D) Debugging Answer: C Explanation: Requirements elicitation occurs earlier in the lifecycle; construction focuses on coding and verification. Question 13. Cyclomatic complexity is a metric used to measure: A) The size of a codebase in lines of code B) The number of independent paths through a program’s source code C) The performance speed of an algorithm D) The memory consumption of an application Answer: B Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity quantifies the number of linearly independent paths, aiding test case design. Question 14. In test-driven development (TDD), which activity occurs first? A) Write production code B) Write a failing test case C) Refactor code D) Perform integration testing Answer: B
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Smoke testing checks that the most critical functions operate before more extensive testing. Question 18. In the V-Model, which activity corresponds to the “Verification” side of the diagram? A) System testing B) Acceptance testing C) Requirements validation D) Unit testing Answer: D Explanation: Verification activities (e.g., unit, integration, system testing) are on the left side of the V-Model, ensuring the product is built correctly. Question 19. Which maintenance type involves adding new features to a software system? A) Corrective maintenance B) Adaptive maintenance C) Perfective maintenance D) Preventive maintenance Answer: C Explanation: Perfective maintenance improves or adds functionality to meet evolving user needs. Question 20. The primary goal of reverse engineering in software maintenance is to: A) Optimize code for performance
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
B) Convert code to a different programming language C) Recover design and architecture information from existing code D) Encrypt source code for security Answer: C Explanation: Reverse engineering extracts high-level understanding from legacy code to aid modification. Question 21. In configuration management, a “baseline” refers to: A) The initial project schedule B) A formally approved set of configuration items at a specific point in time C) The set of all test cases executed during system testing D) The total cost of ownership of the software Answer: B Explanation: A baseline is a frozen snapshot of configuration items that serves as a reference for future changes. Question 22. Which SCM activity is responsible for tracking the status of change requests? A) Configuration identification B) Configuration control C) Configuration status accounting D) Configuration auditing Answer: C Explanation: Status accounting records and reports on the current state of configuration items and change requests.
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Explanation: EVM integrates cost, schedule, and scope to assess project performance against the plan. Question 26. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “mature” software process according to CMMI Level 5? A) Processes are documented but not measured B) Process performance is statistically controlled and continuously improved C) Projects are managed using ad-hoc methods D) No formal process improvement initiatives exist Answer: B Explanation: Level 5 focuses on optimizing processes through quantitative management and continuous improvement. Question 27. The “Plan-Do-Check-Act” (PDCA) cycle is most closely associated with which software engineering activity? A) Requirements elicitation B) Process improvement C) Unit testing D) Configuration identification Answer: B Explanation: PDCA provides a systematic approach to iteratively improve software processes. Question 28. Which model emphasizes risk reduction by delivering a small, usable portion of the system early and iteratively? A) Waterfall model B) Spiral model C) V-Model
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
D) Incremental model Answer: D Explanation: Incremental development delivers functional increments, allowing early feedback and risk mitigation. Question 29. In the ISO/IEC 25010 quality model, which characteristic relates to the degree to which software can be modified to correct faults? A) Reliability B) Maintainability C) Portability D) Security Answer: B Explanation: Maintainability addresses the ease of modifying software to fix defects or improve it. Question 30. Which testing technique derives test cases from a formal specification without reference to the program’s source code? A) Black-box testing B) White-box testing C) Grey-box testing D) Mutation testing Answer: A Explanation: Black-box (specification-based) testing uses the specification alone to design test cases. Question 31. A “use-case scenario” primarily assists in:
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Question 34. The “information hiding” principle is most closely related to which object-oriented concept? A) Inheritance B) Polymorphism C) Encapsulation D) Aggregation Answer: C Explanation: Encapsulation hides internal details behind a public interface, supporting information hiding. Question 35. Which of the following best describes a “formal method” in software engineering? A) Using UML diagrams to communicate design B) Applying mathematically based techniques to specify and verify software behavior C) Conducting pair programming sessions D) Performing exploratory testing Answer: B Explanation: Formal methods rely on rigorous mathematical models for specification and proof. Question 36. The “principle of least privilege” primarily addresses which quality attribute? A) Usability B) Security C) Performance D) Portability
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Limiting access rights reduces the attack surface, enhancing security. Question 37. In risk management, the “expected monetary value” (EMV) of a risk is calculated by: A) Multiplying the probability of occurrence by the impact cost B) Adding the probability to the impact cost C) Dividing the impact cost by the probability D) Subtracting the probability from the impact cost Answer: A Explanation: EMV = Probability × Impact, providing a quantitative risk assessment. Question 38. Which cost model is commonly used to estimate effort based on software size measured in lines of code? A) COCOMO B) Function point analysis C) Use-case points D. COSMIC Answer: A Explanation: COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) relates size (LOC) to effort, schedule, and cost. Question 39. In the context of life-cycle economics, “break-even point” refers to: A) The moment when a project’s schedule variance becomes zero B) The point where total costs equal total revenues or savings C) The point at which software quality reaches 100% D) The instant when all defects have been removed
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
C) Increment D) Definition of Done Answer: B Explanation: The sprint backlog contains the selected product backlog items and the plan for delivering them. Question 43. Which of the following is NOT a typical purpose of a “code review”? A) Detecting defects early B) Improving code readability C) Estimating project cost D) Sharing knowledge among team members Answer: C Explanation: Code reviews focus on quality and knowledge transfer, not directly on cost estimation. Question 44. A “design by contract” approach specifies: A) The hardware requirements for a system B) Preconditions, postconditions, and invariants for software components C) The user interface layout guidelines D) The version control branching strategy Answer: B Explanation: Contracts define the obligations and guarantees of software modules. Question 45. Which of the following is an example of a “structural” quality attribute? A) Reliability
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
B) Modifiability C. Usability D) Performance Answer: B Explanation: Modifiability concerns the structure of the codebase and its ease of change. Question 46. In the context of software reuse, a “framework” is best described as: A) A set of low-level utility functions B) A reusable architectural skeleton that can be specialized for specific applications C) A collection of test cases D) A version-control repository Answer: B Explanation: Frameworks provide generic structure and extension points for building applications. **Question 47. Which of the following statements about “technical debt” is correct? ** A) It refers to the monetary cost of purchasing hardware B) It is the result of shortcuts taken during development that may require future rework C) It is a legal liability for software patents D) It measures the amount of code comments Answer: B Explanation: Technical debt quantifies the future effort needed to address suboptimal design or code.
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Defect density = defects / size, providing a normalized quality indicator. Question 51. Which of the following best describes “pair programming”? A) Two developers work on separate modules simultaneously B) Two developers share one workstation, alternating between driver and observer roles C) A senior developer mentors a junior developer remotely D) Two teams collaborate on the same code base using version control Answer: B Explanation: Pair programming involves two programmers at one workstation, improving code quality. Question 52. In the “Spiral model,” each loop of the spiral represents: A) A single coding iteration only B) A phase of requirements gathering, design, implementation, and testing with risk analysis C) The final release of the product D) The testing phase exclusively Answer: B Explanation: Each spiral iteration includes planning, risk assessment, engineering, and evaluation. Question 53. Which of the following is an example of a “usage-based” test technique? A) Equivalence partitioning B) Decision table testing C) Operational profile testing
Engineering Master Certification
PSEM Ultimate Exam
D) Statement coverage Answer: C Explanation: Operational profiles model real-world usage patterns to prioritize test cases. Question 54. A “component diagram” in UML primarily illustrates: A) The flow of control among methods B) The physical deployment of software on hardware nodes C) The organization and dependencies among software components D) The sequence of messages exchanged at runtime Answer: C Explanation: Component diagrams show modular parts and their interfaces. Question 55. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a “configuration management plan”? A) Define the software architecture B) Outline how configuration items will be identified, controlled, and audited C) Schedule user training sessions D) Estimate project budget Answer: B Explanation: The plan specifies SCM policies, procedures, and responsibilities. Question 56. In the context of risk, what does “risk exposure” refer to? A) The probability of a risk occurring only B) The impact of a risk only
