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Exam
Question 1. Which SDLC model is most suitable for projects with well-defined requirements and minimal changes expected during development? A) Agile B) Waterfall C) Spiral D) V-Model Answer: B Explanation: The Waterfall model is best suited for projects with clear, stable requirements, as it follows a linear sequence of phases with minimal flexibility for changes once a phase is completed. Question 2. In the context of SDLC phases, which phase involves creating detailed diagrams and specifications to guide the development process? A) Requirement gathering B) Design C) Development D) Testing
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Answer: B Explanation: The Design phase focuses on creating detailed technical specifications, architecture diagrams, and models that guide the implementation of the software. Question 3. Which development approach emphasizes iterative cycles, continuous feedback, and flexibility in requirements? A) Waterfall B) Spiral C) Agile D) V-Model Answer: C Explanation: Agile development promotes iterative cycles, frequent stakeholder feedback, and adaptability to changing requirements, contrasting with linear models like Waterfall.
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Answer: C Explanation: Safety-critical systems require rigorous validation, documentation, and risk management, making models like V-Model or Spiral appropriate due to their emphasis on verification and validation. Question 6. Which principle of software design advocates hiding internal details and exposing only necessary parts? A) Modularity B) Encapsulation C) Abstraction D) Scalability Answer: B Explanation: Encapsulation involves hiding internal object details and providing access through well-defined interfaces, promoting data hiding and security.
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Question 7. Which architectural pattern is best suited for applications requiring independent deployment and scalability of components? A) Layered architecture B) Monolithic architecture C) Microservices architecture D) Client-Server architecture Answer: C Explanation: Microservices architecture decomposes applications into independent, loosely coupled services that can be deployed and scaled independently. Question 8. Which design pattern ensures a class has only one instance and provides a global point of access to it? A) Factory B) Singleton C) Observer D) Adapter
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Question 10. Which programming paradigm emphasizes immutability, first- class functions, and higher-order functions? A) Procedural B) Object-oriented C) Functional D) Concurrent Answer: C Explanation: Functional programming focuses on pure functions, immutable data, and higher-order functions to promote declarative code and easier reasoning. Question 11. Which language is primarily procedural but supports object- oriented features and is widely used for system scripting? A) C++ B) Python C) Java D) JavaScript
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Answer: B Explanation: Python is a high-level, multi-paradigm language supporting procedural, object-oriented, and functional programming, commonly used for scripting and automation. Question 12. In data structures, which structure provides fast lookup, insertion, and deletion based on keys? A) Array B) Linked list C) Hash table D) Tree Answer: C Explanation: Hash tables utilize hash functions to provide average-case constant-time complexity for key-based operations like lookup, insertion, and deletion.
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Answer: B Explanation: Binary search operates in logarithmic time in the worst case because it halves the search space with each comparison. Question 15. Which testing type involves testing individual units or components in isolation? A) System testing B) Integration testing C) Unit testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: Unit testing focuses on testing individual functions or classes in isolation to ensure they work as intended. Question 16. Which testing approach is driven by writing tests before the actual code, promoting better design and test coverage?
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A) Manual testing B) Test-driven development (TDD) C) Black-box testing D) Regression testing Answer: B Explanation: TDD involves writing tests prior to coding, which guides development, ensures test coverage, and facilitates refactoring. Question 17. Which CI/CD practice involves automatically building and testing code changes to detect integration issues early? A) Continuous deployment B) Continuous integration C) Continuous delivery D) Manual testing Answer: B Explanation: Continuous Integration automatically builds and tests code changes as they are committed, catching integration problems early.
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Answer: C Explanation: Prototyping involves creating preliminary versions of the system to clarify requirements through stakeholder demonstrations. Question 20. Which estimation technique calculates effort based on the number of function points, considering the complexity of software features? A) COCOMO B) Function point analysis C) Use case points D) Expert judgment Answer: B Explanation: Function point analysis measures software size based on functional features and complexity, aiding effort estimation. Question 21. Which version control system is distributed, allowing each user to have a full copy of the repository?
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A) SVN
B) CVS
C) Git D) Perforce Answer: C Explanation: Git is a distributed version control system where each user maintains a complete copy of the repository, enabling offline work and branching. Question 22. In version control, which strategy involves creating separate lines of development that can be merged later? A) Trunk-based development B) Branching and merging C) Continuous deployment D) Locking files Answer: B
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A) Encryption B) Hashing C) Digital signatures D) Public key cryptography Answer: B Explanation: Hashing generates a unique fixed-size digest of data, used for verifying data integrity without revealing the original data. Question 25. Which access control model grants permissions based on user roles within an organization? A) Discretionary Access Control (DAC) B) Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) C) Mandatory Access Control (MAC) D) Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) Answer: B Explanation: RBAC assigns permissions to roles rather than individual users, simplifying access management aligned with organizational roles.
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Question 26. Which type of database model organizes data into collections of documents, typically using JSON or BSON formats? A) Relational B) NoSQL C) Graph D) Time-series Answer: B Explanation: NoSQL document databases store data as documents, allowing flexible schemas, scalability, and easy storage of semi-structured data. Question 27. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database? A) INSERT B) UPDATE C) SELECT D) DELETE Answer: C
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A) IaaS B) PaaS C) SaaS D) FaaS Answer: B Explanation: Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) offers a platform allowing users to develop, run, and manage applications without infrastructure management. Question 30. Which container orchestration tool is most widely used for managing containerized applications at scale? A) Docker Compose B) Kubernetes C) Ansible D) Terraform Answer: B Explanation: Kubernetes is a leading orchestration platform that automates deployment, scaling, and management of containerized applications.
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Question 31. Which principle of DevOps emphasizes automating infrastructure provisioning and configuration? A) Continuous deployment B) Infrastructure as Code (IaC) C) Continuous testing D) Manual deployment Answer: B Explanation: Infrastructure as Code involves automating the provisioning and management of infrastructure through code, enabling repeatability and consistency. Question 32. Which DevOps practice involves deploying code changes to production automatically after passing tests? A) Continuous integration B) Continuous delivery C) Continuous deployment
