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Question 1. Which phase of the SDLC is primarily concerned with defining system objectives, scope, and feasibility? A) Implementation B) Planning C) Testing D) Maintenance Answer: B Explanation: The Planning phase establishes project goals, identifies constraints, and evaluates feasibility before any detailed work begins. Question 2. In the Waterfall model, which characteristic most accurately describes the relationship between phases? A) Phases can be revisited at any time. B) Each phase must be completed before the next begins. C) All phases are executed in parallel. D) Testing occurs before design. Answer: B Explanation: Waterfall follows a linear, sequential approach where a phase is finished before moving to the next. Question 3. Which Agile principle emphasizes “working software over comprehensive documentation”? A) Responding to change over following a plan B) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation C) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools D) Working software over comprehensive documentation Answer: D
Explanation: The Agile Manifesto lists “working software over comprehensive documentation” as one of its four core values. Question 4. In Scrum, who is responsible for maximizing the value of the product resulting from the work of the Development Team? A) Scrum Master B) Product Owner C) Development Team D) Stakeholder Answer: B Explanation: The Product Owner owns the product backlog and prioritizes items to maximize product value. Question 5. Which Lean principle focuses on eliminating activities that do not add value to the customer? A) Empower the team B) Optimize the whole C) Reduce waste D) Deliver fast Answer: C Explanation: Lean’s “eliminate waste” principle aims to remove non-value-adding activities from the process. Question 6. CALMS is a framework for DevOps. Which element of CALMS stands for “Culture”? A) Continuous Integration B) Automation C) Collaboration
B) Non-functional – Performance C) Non-functional – Security D) Non-functional – Usability Answer: C Explanation: Encryption is a security attribute, a non-functional requirement. Question 10. In a user story, the phrase “As a [role], I want [goal] so that [benefit]” primarily captures: A) Acceptance criteria B) Functional decomposition C) Stakeholder analysis D) Requirement framing Answer: D Explanation: This format frames the requirement from the user’s perspective, capturing who, what, and why. Question 11. Which characteristic is NOT part of a good requirement according to IEEE standards? A) Traceable B) Ambiguous C) Testable D) Consistent Answer: B Explanation: Good requirements must be unambiguous; “ambiguous” violates that principle. Question 12. A Traceability Matrix is used to:
A) Measure code complexity. B) Map requirements to test cases. C) Estimate project cost. D) Prioritize user stories. Answer: B Explanation: Traceability matrices link each requirement to its corresponding test cases, ensuring coverage. Question 13. Which architectural pattern separates concerns into Model, View, and Controller components? A) Layered Architecture B) Client-Server C) MVC D) Microservices Answer: C Explanation: MVC (Model-View-Controller) isolates data, UI, and control logic into distinct components. Question 14. In a microservices architecture, the primary benefit of “independent deployability” is: A) Reduced network latency. B) Ability to scale the entire system as a single unit. C) Each service can be released without affecting others. D) Simplified data modeling. Answer: C Explanation: Independent deployability allows teams to update a service without coordinating a full system release.
Question 18. Which UI design principle emphasizes that the system should provide immediate visual feedback after a user action? A) Affordance B) Consistency C) Feedback D) Simplicity Answer: C Explanation: Feedback informs users that their input has been received and processed. Question 19. Nielsen’s heuristic “Visibility of system status” corresponds to which design practice? A) Using progress indicators during long operations. B) Providing a help menu on every screen. C) Maintaining consistent color schemes. D) Limiting the number of options per screen. Answer: A Explanation: Showing progress bars or status messages keeps users aware of the system’s current state. Question 20. Which coding standard practice improves readability by limiting line length to 80-100 characters? A) Naming conventions B) Indentation C) Code formatting D) Commenting guidelines Answer: C
Explanation: Code formatting includes line-length limits, which enhance readability. Question 21. In Git, the “git rebase” command is primarily used to: A) Merge two branches creating a merge commit. B) Permanently delete a branch. C) Rewrite commit history by applying changes on top of another base. D) Fetch remote changes without merging. Answer: C Explanation: Rebase reapplies commits onto a new base, creating a linear history. Question 22. Which branching strategy encourages frequent integration to a mainline branch? A) Git Flow B) Feature Branching C) Trunk-Based Development D) Release Branching Answer: C Explanation: Trunk-Based Development promotes short-lived branches and continuous integration to the trunk. Question 23. A breakpoint is most useful for: A) Measuring code coverage. B) Stopping program execution at a specific line to inspect state. C) Automating unit tests. D) Refactoring large classes. Answer: B
Answer: B Explanation: Integration testing assesses how combined components work together. Question 27. The “pesticide paradox” in software testing suggests: A) Repeating the same test cases will eventually find all bugs. B) Test cases must be regularly revised to remain effective. C) Test suites should be as large as possible. D) All bugs are caused by code duplication. Answer: B Explanation: Like pests becoming resistant, tests lose effectiveness if not varied; they need updating. Question 28. Which non-functional test evaluates how the system behaves under heavy user load? A) Smoke testing B – Regression testing C) Load testing D) Security testing Answer: C Explanation: Load testing measures performance under expected peak usage. Question 29. Equivalence Partitioning is a black-box test design technique that: A) Tests every possible input value. B) Divides input domain into classes that are expected to behave similarly. C) Focuses on internal code paths. D) Generates test cases from UML state diagrams.
Answer: B Explanation: By selecting representative values from each partition, testers achieve coverage efficiently. Question 30. In white-box testing, achieving 100 % statement coverage guarantees: A) All possible bugs are found. B) All branches have been executed. C) Every executable statement has been run at least once. D) All possible data inputs have been tested. Answer: C Explanation: Statement coverage ensures each line of code is executed, but not necessarily all branches. Question 31. Severity in defect management refers to: A) The order in which the defect will be fixed. B) The impact of the defect on system functionality. C) The likelihood of the defect being reproduced. D) The cost to fix the defect. Answer: B Explanation: Severity measures how serious the defect’s effect is on the product. Question 32. Corrective maintenance is performed to: A) Add new features. B) Adapt the system to a new operating system. C) Fix discovered defects. D) Improve performance without changing functionality.
Answer: C Explanation: COCOMO (Constructive Cost Model) estimates effort based on KLOC and various cost drivers. Question 36. The Earned Value (EV) in Earned Value Management (EVM) represents: A) The budgeted cost of work scheduled. B) The actual cost incurred to date. C) The budgeted cost of work performed. D) The variance between planned and actual schedule. Answer: C Explanation: EV is the value of work actually completed expressed in budget terms. Question 37. In risk management, which technique quantifies risk exposure by multiplying probability and impact? A) SWOT analysis B) Monte Carlo simulation C) Expected Monetary Value (EMV) D) Fault tree analysis Answer: C Explanation: EMV = Probability × Impact, giving a numeric risk exposure. Question 38. Which software license allows anyone to use, modify, and distribute the code without restriction, provided the original copyright notice is retained? A) GPL B) MIT C) Proprietary
D) Creative Commons Answer: B Explanation: The MIT license is permissive, requiring only attribution. Question 39. SQL Injection is an example of a vulnerability that primarily affects: A) Authentication mechanisms. B) Input validation. C) Cryptographic algorithms. D) Network firewalls. Answer: B Explanation: SQL injection exploits insufficient validation or sanitization of user-supplied data. Question 40. In the context of security, the principle of “least privilege” dictates that: A) Users should have admin rights by default. B) Every component should have the maximum possible access. C) Users and processes receive only the permissions needed to perform their tasks. D) Passwords must be changed every 30 days. Answer: C Explanation: Least privilege reduces the attack surface by limiting access rights. Question 41. Fault tolerance in software systems is achieved primarily through: A) Increased documentation. B) Redundant components and graceful degradation. C) Faster CPUs.
B) Observer C) Decorator D) Builder Answer: B Explanation: The Observer pattern decouples subjects and observers via a publish-subscribe mechanism. Question 45. A state transition diagram is most useful for modeling: A) Database schema relationships. B) The flow of control in a sequential algorithm. C) The behavior of an object that changes state in response to events. D) The physical network topology. Answer: C Explanation: State diagrams capture possible states and transitions triggered by events. Question 46. Which of the following is a key advantage of Continuous Integration (CI)? A) Eliminates the need for unit tests. B) Guarantees zero defects in production. C) Detects integration issues early by automatically building and testing code on each commit. D) Removes the need for code reviews. Answer: C Explanation: CI automatically builds and runs tests after each change, surfacing integration problems quickly.
Question 47. In Scrum, the time-boxed meeting that occurs each day to synchronize activities is called: A) Sprint Review B) Sprint Retrospective C) Daily Scrum D) Backlog Grooming Answer: C Explanation: The Daily Scrum (or stand-up) is a short daily meeting for the Development Team. Question 48. Which of the following is NOT a typical activity in the Analysis phase of the SDLC? A) Defining functional requirements. B) Designing database schema. C) Conducting feasibility studies. D) Modeling business processes. Answer: B Explanation: Detailed design, such as database schema, belongs to the Design phase, not Analysis. Question 49. In the Rational Unified Process (RUP), an “iteration” is best described as: A) A complete lifecycle from inception to deployment. B) A single pass through all development activities delivering an incremental product. C) A code review session. D) A risk assessment meeting. Answer: B
Explanation: High cohesion means the module’s responsibilities are closely related, such as all order-processing logic. Question 53. In the context of software metrics, defect density is calculated as: A) Number of defects divided by the number of test cases. B) Number of defects divided by lines of code (or function points). C) Number of defects divided by project duration. D) Number of defects divided by number of developers. Answer: B Explanation: Defect density normalizes defects by size (LOC or FP) to assess quality. Question 54. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “spike” in Agile development? A) A deliverable feature ready for production. B) A time-boxed research activity to explore a solution or reduce risk. C Question 54. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “spike” in Agile development? A) A deliverable feature ready for production. B) A time-boxed research activity to explore a solution or reduce risk. C) A mandatory code review. D) A post-release maintenance task. Answer: B Explanation: A spike is a short, time-boxed investigation to gain knowledge or answer a technical question.
Question 55. In a Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA), services communicate primarily through: A) Direct memory access. B) Shared files. C) Well-defined interfaces and messages (e.g., SOAP, REST). D) Hard-coded function calls. Answer: C Explanation: SOA promotes loosely coupled services interacting via standardized protocols. Question 56. Which of the following is an example of a non-functional requirement related to usability? A) The system shall support 10,000 concurrent users. B) The system shall encrypt data in transit. C) The system shall allow users to complete a purchase within three clicks. D) The system shall generate monthly financial reports. Answer: C Explanation: Limiting steps to complete a task addresses usability. Question 57. In a Scrum Sprint, the “Increment” refers to: A) The list of user stories planned for the sprint. B) The total work effort measured in story points. C) The sum of all completed product backlog items that meet the Definition of Done. D) The retrospective action items. Answer: C Explanation: The Increment is the potentially shippable product resulting from the sprint.
