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Specialist Practice Exam
Question 1. Which rack specification must be verified before installing a FlashArray //X? A) Minimum 42 U space B) Four‑post rack with 19 mm spacing C) 19‑inch depth of at least 800 mm D) All of the above Answer: D Explanation: //X requires a 42 U or larger rack, a four‑post frame for stability, and a minimum depth to accommodate the chassis and power cords. Question 2. The recommended PSU redundancy configuration for a new FlashArray deployment is: A) N+ B) N+ C) 2+ D) 1+ Answer: A Explanation: N+1 provides one extra power supply beyond the number required for full operation, ensuring continuous availability if a PSU fails.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 3. When calculating heat load for a data‑center, which metric is most relevant for a FlashArray //XL? A) Watts per rack unit (W/U) B) BTU per hour per rack C) Kilowatts per square foot D) Both A and B Answer: D Explanation: Both W/U and BTU/hr per rack are used to size cooling systems; FlashArray //XL’s power draw translates directly to heat output. Question 4. Which of the following network port types is used for replication traffic on a Pure FlashArray? A) FC (Fibre Channel) B) iSCSI C) Management D) Replication Answer: D Explanation: The Replication port is a dedicated Ethernet interface that carries snapshot replication traffic between arrays.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 7. The Pure Storage Host Connectivity Kit (HCK) primarily provides: A) Firmware for DirectFlash Modules B) Multipathing drivers for Windows, Linux, and VMware C) Backup software for snapshots D) Monitoring agents for Pure Answer: B Explanation: HCK includes certified multipathing modules and utilities to ensure optimal host‑array connectivity. Question 8. Which DNS record type must be configured for the array’s management IP to enable reverse lookup? A) A record B) PTR record C) CNAME record D) MX record Answer: B Explanation: PTR records map IP addresses to hostnames, enabling reverse DNS lookups for management interfaces.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 9. For iSCSI connectivity, the correct way to identify a host initiator in Purity is by its: A) MAC address B) IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name) C) WWPN D) Hostname Answer: B Explanation: iSCSI initiators are uniquely identified by their IQN, which is used when creating host objects. Question 10. Which command lists all DirectFlash Modules (DFMs) attached to a FlashArray? A) purehw list B) puredrive list C) purearray list D) purehost list Answer: B Explanation: puredrive list displays the status of all DFMs and DFMDs recognized by the array.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 13. The pureinstall command is used for: A) Upgrading Purity software B) Installing the initial Purity OS on a new array C) Adding a new DirectFlash Shelf D) Creating a snapshot Answer: B Explanation: pureinstall boots the Purity installer from the USB media to perform the first‑time OS installation. Question 14. Which of the following is a required step after installing Purity on a new array? A) Configuring NTP servers B) Creating a volume group C) Enabling deduplication D) Setting up a remote replication pair Answer: A Explanation: Time synchronization (NTP) is essential for log consistency and cluster operations immediately after installation.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 15. In Purity, the term “admitted” for a drive means: A) The drive is physically present but not yet recognized B) The drive is licensed and ready for data placement C) The drive is in a failed state D) The drive has been removed from service Answer: B Explanation: An admitted drive has passed health checks, is licensed, and can be used for storing data. Question 16. Which storage configuration rule limits the number of volumes on a //E array? A) Maximum 2,048 volumes per array B) Maximum 1,024 volumes per array C) No hard limit, only limited by capacity D) Maximum 4,096 volumes per array Answer: A Explanation: The //E platform caps the total number of volumes at 2,048 due to controller metadata constraints.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 19. Which CLI command creates a new host object named “app01” with an initiator IQN of “iqn.2023‑01.com.example:app01”? A) purehost create – name app01 – iqn iqn.2023‑01.com.example:app B) purehost add – host app01 – iqn iqn.2023‑01.com.example:app C) purehost create app01 iqn.2023‑01.com.example:app D) purehost add app01 iqn.2023‑01.com.example:app Answer: A Explanation: The correct syntax uses the purehost create command with – name and –iqn flags. Question 20. Which feature provides automatic snapshot creation for a group of volumes? A) Volume Group B) Protection Group C) ActiveCluster D) SafeMode Answer: B Explanation: A Protection Group defines schedule and retention policies for automatic snapshots across its member volumes.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 21. The primary benefit of enabling data reduction (deduplication + compression) on a FlashArray is: A) Faster I/O latency B) Increased effective capacity C) Improved snapshot performance D) Higher network throughput Answer: B Explanation: Data reduction reduces the physical storage needed, expanding effective capacity without adding hardware. Question 22. Which of the following is required to activate ActiveCluster between two arrays? A) Both arrays must run the same Purity version B) A mediator node must be deployed in a third site C) Synchronous replication ports must be configured D) All of the above Answer: D Explanation: ActiveCluster needs matching Purity releases, a mediator for quorum, and synchronous replication ports.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 25. Pure1 provides which of the following capabilities? A) Real‑time performance analytics B) Remote firmware flashing only C) Physical rack installation guidance D) None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Pure1 delivers cloud‑based monitoring, AIOps insights, and performance analytics for arrays. Question 26. The purehealth command is used to: A) Perform a hardware health check B) List all volumes on the array C) Upgrade Purity software D) Create a snapshot Answer: A Explanation: purehealth runs a series of diagnostics to verify hardware and software health status.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 27. During a Non‑Disruptive Upgrade (NDU), which controller is upgraded first? A) Controller 0 (CT0) B) Controller 1 (CT1) C) Both simultaneously D) The one with the highest load Answer: A Explanation: The upgrade process upgrades CT0 while CT1 remains active, then swaps roles to maintain availability. Question 28. The Evergreen//XFORM process is used to: A) Convert SAS drives to NVMe drives without downtime B) Upgrade the array firmware automatically C) Migrate volumes between arrays D) Expand the rack footprint Answer: A Explanation: XFORM replaces SAS storage modules with NVMe modules while the array remains online.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 31. The recommended method to collect logs for a support case is: A) Copy /var/log/purity/* manually B) Run purediagnostics collect C) Use purelog export D) SSH into the controller and tar the /etc directory Answer: B Explanation: purediagnostics collect gathers all relevant logs and system information in a support‑ready package. Question 32. Which of the following is true about DirectFlash Shelves (DFS) connectivity LEDs? A) Green indicates power, amber indicates data link B) Amber indicates power, green indicates data link C) Both LEDs must be amber for a healthy shelf D) LEDs are not used for status indication Answer: B Explanation: The power LED is amber, while the data link LED is green; both should be lit for normal operation.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 33. When adding a new DirectFlash Shelf, the first CLI step after physical installation is: A) puredrive admit the shelf’s drives B) purearray add‑shelf C) purehw list to verify shelf presence D) purehost create Answer: C Explanation: purehw list confirms that the array detects the new shelf before admitting its drives. Question 34. Which of the following volume types supports thin provisioning? A) Thick‑provisioned only B) Thin‑provisioned only C) Both thin and thick provisioning are supported D) Neither; all volumes are fully allocated Answer: C Explanation: Pure arrays allow both thin and thick provisioning; thin provisioning is the default for new volumes.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 37. Which command is used to create a Protection Group named “pg‑prod” with a daily snapshot schedule? A) purepg create – name pg‑prod – schedule daily B) purepg add – name pg‑prod – freq daily C) purepg create pg‑prod – daily D) purepg create – name pg‑prod – recurrence daily Answer: A Explanation: The purepg create command with –schedule defines the snapshot frequency. Question 38. In ActiveDR, the replication mode is: A) Synchronous B) Asynchronous C) Near‑synchronous D) Peer‑to‑peer Answer: B Explanation: ActiveDR uses asynchronous replication to a remote site for disaster‑recovery purposes.
Specialist Practice Exam
Question 39. Which of the following is required to enable SafeMode on an array? A) A dedicated management VLAN B) Enabling “immutable snapshots” in the GUI C) Configuring a secondary NTP server D) Installing a hardware key Answer: B Explanation: SafeMode locks down management and creates immutable snapshots; the feature is enabled in the GUI under SafeMode settings. Question 40. Which protocol does Pure1 use to retrieve telemetry data from the array? A) SNMP v2c B) RESTful API over HTTPS C) SSH D) FTP Answer: B Explanation: Pure1 accesses array telemetry via the Purity REST API secured with HTTPS.
