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Question 1. Which of the following best describes the QSEN definition of interprofessional team functioning? A) Nurses working independently to achieve patient goals B) Multiple health-care professionals collaborating to improve patient outcomes C) Physicians directing all aspects of patient care D) Administrative staff managing patient flow Answer: B Explanation: QSEN defines interprofessional team functioning as the collaborative work of various health-care professionals, each contributing their expertise to enhance patient safety and quality of care. Question 2. In an interprofessional team, the patient and family are considered: A) Passive recipients of care B) External observers C) Integral members of the team D) Documentation sources only Answer: C Explanation: The “Patient as Partner” philosophy treats patients and families as active participants whose insights and preferences shape care decisions. Question 3. Which stage of team development is characterized by conflict over roles and responsibilities? A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming D) Performing Answer: B
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Explanation: The Storming stage involves disagreement and power struggles as members clarify expectations and negotiate roles. Question 4. A high-performing team most likely exhibits which of the following characteristics? A) Ambiguous goals and loosely defined roles B) Mutual trust and clear communication C) Frequent turnover of members D) Hierarchical decision making without input Answer: B Explanation: Mutual trust, shared goals, and effective communication are hallmarks of high-performing teams. Question 5. Human factors that most adversely affect teamwork during a night shift include: A) Adequate staffing and bright lighting B) Fatigue and reduced cognitive capacity C) Regular breaks and supportive leadership D) Use of electronic reminders Answer: B Explanation: Fatigue and cognitive overload impair judgment, attention, and communication, increasing the risk of errors. Question 6. SBAR is an acronym used for standardized communication. What does the “R” represent? A) Review B) Recommendation C) Response
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C) Avoid any confrontation to maintain harmony D) Submit a written complaint after the first disagreement Answer: A Explanation: The Two-Challenge Rule encourages the nurse to voice concern once, and if unaddressed, repeat the challenge a second time before seeking higher authority. Question 10. During a handoff, which strategy most reduces the risk of information loss? A) Providing only a brief verbal summary B) Using the SBAR format and confirming receipt C) Relying on memory of the outgoing nurse D) Handing over the patient’s chart without discussion Answer: B Explanation: Structured SBAR communication coupled with closed-loop verification helps ensure completeness and accuracy. Question 11. The “Five Rights of Delegation” do NOT include which of the following? A) Right task B) Right circumstance C) Right person D) Right compensation Answer: D Explanation: The Five Rights are task, circumstance, person, direction/communication, and supervision/evaluation; compensation is not part of delegation.
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Question 12. Which professional’s scope of practice primarily includes prescribing medication? A) Physical therapist B) Occupational therapist C) Pharmacist D) Physician Answer: D Explanation: Physicians have the legal authority to prescribe medications; pharmacists dispense and counsel but do not prescribe (except in limited collaborative practice agreements). Question 13. In a just culture, errors are viewed primarily as: A) Individual failures deserving punishment B) Systemic opportunities for learning and improvement C) Irrelevant to patient safety D) Reasons to terminate staff Answer: B Explanation: A just culture focuses on system factors that contribute to errors, promoting learning rather than blame. Question 14. Complexity science in healthcare suggests that: A) Linear cause-effect relationships dominate outcomes B) Small changes in one part of a system can produce large, unpredictable effects C) All team members must follow identical protocols without adaptation D) Individual actions have no impact on system performance Answer: B
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Answer: B Explanation: A huddle is a short, focused meeting that aligns the team on immediate goals and safety concerns. Question 18. Which Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goal directly addresses communication? A) NPSG 01.01.01 – Improve patient identification B) NPSG 02.01.01 – Reduce the risk of falls C) NPSG 03.05.01 – Ensure effective communication among caregivers D) NPSG 04.04.01 – Prevent health-care-associated infections Answer: C Explanation: NPSG 03.05.01 specifically requires organizations to improve communication among caregivers. Question 19. According to the ANA Principles of Collaboration, authentic relationships are built on: A) Competition and hierarchy B) Mutual respect and shared decision making C) Strict adherence to discipline-specific roles D) Isolation of professional identities Answer: B Explanation: Authentic collaboration requires mutual respect, shared decision making, and openness. Question 20. Using the EHR as a communication tool during a multidisciplinary round primarily supports: A) Reducing face-to-face interaction
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B) Real-time information sharing and documentation C) Eliminating verbal handoffs D) Limiting patient involvement Answer: B Explanation: The EHR enables simultaneous access to up-to-date data, facilitating coordinated communication among team members. Question 21. Which of the following best illustrates active listening in a team meeting? A) Nodding while formulating a response before the speaker finishes B) Interrupting to add a comment C) Summarizing the speaker’s point before responding D) Checking the phone for messages Answer: C Explanation: Summarizing demonstrates that the listener has understood and valued the speaker’s message. Question 22. The CUS (Concerned, Uncomfortable, Safety Issue) framework is used to: A) Document patient allergies B) Structure a discharge plan C) Encourage nurses to voice safety concerns assertively D) Prioritize medication administration Answer: C Explanation: CUS provides a simple script for nurses to express concerns about patient safety.
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Explanation: Mutual support is about helping, backing up, and offering respectful feedback to enhance team performance. Question 26. The “DESC” script for conflict resolution stands for: A) Describe, Express, Specify, Conclude B) Define, Evaluate, Solve, Complete C) Describe, Express, Specify, Consequence D) Discuss, Engage, Support, Communicate Answer: C Explanation: DESC is a structured communication tool: Describe the situation, Express feelings, Specify a request, and state the Consequence. Question 27. In the context of interprofessional collaboration, the term “scope creep” refers to: A) Expanding a patient’s treatment plan beyond necessity B) A professional performing tasks outside their legal scope of practice C) Increasing the number of team members without clear roles D) Overloading the EHR with unnecessary data Answer: B Explanation: Scope creep occurs when a clinician takes on responsibilities beyond their authorized scope, potentially compromising safety and legality. Question 28. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using briefings before a surgical case? A) Reducing the need for postoperative follow-up B) Clarifying roles, anticipating problems, and enhancing team cohesion C) Eliminating the need for written consent D) Allowing the surgeon to work alone
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Answer: B Explanation: Briefings align expectations, identify potential issues, and promote teamwork, thereby improving patient safety. Question 29. A nurse notices a medication error after it has been administered and uses the “two-challenge rule.” What is the correct sequence? A) Report to the hospital administrator immediately, then document the error B) Challenge the prescriber once, then repeat the challenge if the error persists before escalating C) Ignore the error to avoid conflict, then correct the chart later D) Notify the patient’s family before taking any action Answer: B Explanation: The two-challenge rule instructs the nurse to voice the concern twice before seeking higher authority, ensuring safety while respecting hierarchy. Question 30. In a just culture, when a frontline staff member makes a mistake due to system flaws, the appropriate response is to: A) Terminate employment immediately B) Conduct a root-cause analysis and implement system improvements C) Blame the individual publicly D) Ignore the incident to maintain morale Answer: B Explanation: A just culture focuses on learning from errors and fixing system vulnerabilities rather than punitive actions. Question 31. Which of the following best defines “interprofessional” versus “intraprofessional” teams?
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Explanation: Cultural humility involves lifelong learning, self-reflection, and respect for diverse cultural viewpoints. Question 34. A “debrief” after a critical event primarily serves to: A) Assign blame for any mistakes that occurred B) Review what happened, identify successes and areas for improvement, and plan corrective actions C) Celebrate the team’s performance without critique D) Document the event for legal purposes only Answer: B Explanation: Debriefing is a reflective process aimed at learning and improving future performance, not blaming. Question 35. Which of the following is an example of “shared decision-making” with a patient? A) The physician decides the treatment plan without patient input B) The nurse informs the patient of the plan after it is finalized by the team C) The team presents options, discusses risks/benefits, and incorporates the patient’s preferences into the final plan D) The patient is asked to sign a consent form without explanation Answer: C Explanation: Shared decision-making integrates patient values and preferences with clinical expertise. Question 36. When using the SBAR tool, the “Background” component should include: A) The patient’s current vital signs only B) A concise summary of relevant clinical history and context C) The nurse’s personal opinion about the situation
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D) The recommended medication dosage Answer: B Explanation: Background provides essential context (history, diagnosis, recent events) to help the receiver understand the situation. Question 37. The “right circumstance” in delegation refers to: A) The time of day the task is performed B) The environment, patient condition, and resources available that make the task appropriate C) The delegatee’s personal preferences D) The financial cost of the task Answer: B Explanation: Right circumstance ensures that the situation, patient status, and available resources support safe completion of the delegated task. Question 38. Which of the following best illustrates a “just-in-time” communication strategy during a code blue? A) Sending a detailed email after the event B) Providing concise, real-time updates to all team members as the situation evolves C) Waiting for the physician to debrief the team later D) Documenting the event in the chart without verbal communication Answer: B Explanation: Just-in-time communication delivers essential information promptly, enabling rapid, coordinated action. Question 39. In TeamSTEPPS®, the “leadership” skill set includes which of the following behaviors?
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Question 42. Which of the following statements reflects a “blame” culture? A) Errors are investigated to improve system processes B) Staff fear reporting mistakes because they anticipate punishment C) Team members openly discuss near-miss events for learning D) Leadership encourages transparent communication Answer: B Explanation: A blame culture penalizes individuals for errors, discouraging reporting and learning. Question 43. A nurse uses the “DESC” script during a disagreement with a pharmacist about a medication dosage. Which part of DESC involves stating the impact if the request is not met? A) Describe B) Express C) Specify D) Consequence Answer: D Explanation: The “Consequence” component outlines the results or impact if the request is not addressed. Question 44. Which of the following is the most effective way to incorporate the patient’s expertise into the care plan? A) Rely solely on clinical guidelines without asking the patient’s preferences B) Ask the patient about their daily routines, values, and goals, then integrate that information C) Allow the patient to make all clinical decisions without professional input D) Document the patient’s preferences but ignore them in decision making
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Answer: B Explanation: Engaging patients about their lived experience and preferences respects their expertise and informs personalized care. Question 45. In the context of teamwork, “mutual respect” is best demonstrated by: A) Ignoring contributions from disciplines perceived as less critical B) Actively listening to and valuing each team member’s input, regardless of rank C) Allowing only physicians to speak during rounds D) Assigning tasks based on seniority alone Answer: B Explanation: Mutual respect involves acknowledging and valuing each member’s expertise and perspective. Question 46. Which of the following best describes “lifelong learning” as an attitude toward teamwork? A) Assuming that all necessary skills are learned during initial training B) Continuously seeking feedback, education, and skill refinement to improve collaboration C) Avoiding new communication tools to preserve tradition D) Relying on experience alone for all future interactions Answer: B Explanation: Lifelong learning emphasizes ongoing development and adaptation to enhance teamwork. Question 47. A nurse notices a colleague’s fatigue during a high-stress shift. The appropriate mutual support action is to: A) Ignore the fatigue to avoid embarrassment B) Offer assistance with tasks and suggest a short break if possible
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Question 50. The “right direction/communication” component of delegation ensures that: A) The task is assigned without instructions B) Clear, concise instructions and expectations are provided to the delegatee C) The delegatee decides the method of completion without guidance D) No follow-up is needed after assignment Answer: B Explanation: Right direction/communication requires explicit instructions, expectations, and criteria for completion. Question 51. Which of the following is NOT a typical barrier to effective interprofessional communication? A) Hierarchical differences B) Use of standardized communication tools C) Time pressures D) Language or jargon differences Answer: B Explanation: Standardized tools (e.g., SBAR) facilitate communication; they are not barriers. Question 52. When a team member uses “check-back” after receiving a medication order, they are primarily ensuring: A) The order is entered into the EHR B) The order is understood correctly and will be carried out as intended C) The patient’s insurance covers the medication D) The pharmacy has enough stock Answer: B
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Explanation: Check-back confirms accurate receipt and understanding of the order. Question 53. Which of the following best describes “situational monitoring” in TeamSTEPPS®? A) Focusing exclusively on one patient’s chart B) Continuously scanning the environment for changes that may affect safety C) Delegating all monitoring responsibilities to a single team member D) Ignoring non-critical alarms to reduce distractions Answer: B Explanation: Situational monitoring involves ongoing awareness of the clinical environment, team performance, and potential hazards. Question 54. A nurse uses the “concerned-uncomfortable-safety issue” (CUS) technique to address a potential medication error. What is the first word they should state? A) Uncomfortable B) Concerned C) Safety D) Issue Answer: B Explanation: The CUS script begins with “I am concerned…” to signal the seriousness of the issue. Question 55. In the context of team development, which stage is characterized by high cohesion, efficiency, and achievement of goals? A) Forming B) Storming C) Norming
