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Practice Exam
Question 1. Which ISO/IEC 25010 quality characteristic focuses on the degree to which a product prevents unauthorized access? A) Reliability B) Security C) Portability D) Usability Answer: B Explanation: Security addresses confidentiality, integrity, and protection against unauthorized access, making it the correct characteristic. Question 2. In the Cost of Quality model, which category includes activities such as training and process improvement? A) Prevention B) Appraisal C) Internal Failure D) External Failure Answer: A Explanation: Prevention costs are incurred to avoid defects, including training, process definition, and early‑stage quality activities. Question 3. What is the primary difference between Software Quality Assurance (SQA) and Quality Control (QC)? A) SQA focuses on product testing, QC on process definition. B) SQA is process‑oriented, QC is product‑oriented. C) SQA is performed after release, QC before coding. D) SQA uses static analysis only, QC uses dynamic testing only.
Practice Exam
Answer: B Explanation: SQA ensures that proper processes are followed, while QC verifies that the product meets its requirements. Question 4. Which CMMI maturity level introduces the Process Management (PM) and Project Management (PM) process areas? A) Level 1 B) Level 2 C) Level 3 D) Level 4 Answer: C Explanation: At Level 3, CMMI adds defined processes (PM) and project management (PM) to ensure processes are tailored and followed. Question 5. In Six Sigma DMAIC, which phase is primarily concerned with identifying the root causes of defects? A) Define B) Measure C) Analyze D) Improve Answer: C Explanation: The Analyze phase uses data to pinpoint the underlying causes of variation and defects. Question 6. Risk‑Based Testing (RBT) typically prioritizes test cases based on which three factors?
Practice Exam
Question 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing? A) Pre‑written test scripts that are executed sequentially B) Strict adherence to a test plan before execution C) Simultaneous learning, test design, and test execution D) Use of only automated tools Answer: C Explanation: Exploratory testing blends learning about the system with designing and executing tests on the fly. Question 10. Load testing primarily measures: A) System behavior under peak traffic for a short period B) System behavior under sustained typical traffic C) System behavior when resources are exhausted D) System behavior during sudden traffic spikes Answer: B Explanation: Load testing evaluates performance under expected, sustained user loads. Question 11. Which OWASP Top 10 vulnerability refers to improper validation of user‑supplied data that can lead to injection attacks? A) Broken Authentication B) Sensitive Data Exposure C) Injection D) Security Misconfiguration Answer: C
Practice Exam
Explanation: Injection flaws (e.g., SQL, LDAP) arise from insufficient input validation, allowing attackers to execute unintended commands. Question 12. Heuristic evaluation is a usability testing technique that relies on: A) End‑user surveys after release B) Automated UI crawlers C) Expert reviewers applying usability heuristics D) A/B testing of design variants Answer: C Explanation: Experts examine the interface against recognized heuristics (e.g., Nielsen’s) to identify usability problems. Question 13. Statement coverage measures the percentage of: A) Executed statements out of total statements B) Executed branches out of total branches C) Executed paths out of total paths D) Executed conditions out of total conditions Answer: A Explanation: Statement coverage (also called line coverage) tracks how many source statements have been executed during testing. Question 14. Cyclomatic complexity is primarily used to assess: A) The number of defects per thousand lines of code B) The number of independent paths through a program C) The amount of memory used by an application D) The degree of code reuse across modules
Practice Exam
A) Factory Method B) Abstract Factory C) Builder D) Prototype Answer: B Explanation: Abstract Factory provides an interface for creating related objects, allowing families of products to be instantiated without concrete class knowledge. Question 18. Verification activities answer the question: A) “Are we building the right product?” B) “Are we building the product right?” C) “Is the product marketable?” D) “Does the product meet user expectations?” Answer: B Explanation: Verification checks conformance to specifications (building the product correctly). Question 19. In Scrum, the artifact that contains the detailed work items for the upcoming Sprint is the: A) Product Backlog B) Sprint Backlog C) Increment D) Definition of Done Answer: B Explanation: The Sprint Backlog holds the selected Product Backlog items and the plan for delivering them during the Sprint.
Practice Exam
Question 20. Behaviour‑Driven Development (BDD) primarily uses which type of notation to describe scenarios? A) UML Class Diagrams B) Gherkin “Given‑When‑Then” syntax C) Flowcharts D) Pseudocode Answer: B Explanation: BDD employs Gherkin language with Given‑When‑Then steps to create readable, executable specifications. Question 21. In a CI/CD pipeline, which stage is most appropriate for running static code analysis? A) Pre‑commit hook B) Build stage C) Acceptance testing stage D) Deployment stage Answer: B Explanation: The build stage compiles code and is ideal for integrating static analysis tools before unit tests. Question 22. The Page Object Model (POM) design pattern in UI test automation primarily promotes: A) Hard‑coded locators for speed B) Separation of test logic from page structure C) Direct interaction with the browser driver in every test D) Use of absolute XPath expressions only
Practice Exam
C) Root Cause Analysis D) Release planning Answer: C Explanation: By repeatedly asking “Why?” five times, the technique uncovers the underlying cause of a problem. Question 26. In Test‑Driven Development, the “Red‑Green‑Refactor” cycle starts with: A) Writing a failing test (Red) B) Refactoring code (Green) C) Writing production code (Refactor) D) Running the full test suite (Red) Answer: A Explanation: TDD begins with a failing test to define the desired behavior, then code is added to make it pass. Question 27. Property‑based testing differs from example‑based testing because it: A) Uses only manual test cases B) Generates a large number of random inputs based on defined properties C) Relies on UI screenshots for verification D) Requires a dedicated test management tool Answer: B Explanation: Property‑based testing defines invariants and automatically generates varied inputs to validate them. Question 28. Which of the following is considered a “code smell” indicating a violation of the Single Responsibility Principle?
Practice Exam
A) Large class with many unrelated methods B) Deep inheritance hierarchy C) Repeated conditional logic D) Excessive use of static methods Answer: A Explanation: A God‑class that handles many responsibilities suggests a breach of SRP and is a classic code smell. Question 29. Contract testing between microservices primarily validates: A) UI consistency across services B) Database schema compatibility C) API request/response contracts (e.g., schemas, status codes) D) Deployment scripts syntax Answer: C Explanation: Contract tests ensure that service interfaces adhere to agreed‑upon contracts, preventing integration failures. Question 30. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is a metric that measures: A) Average time to fix a defect after detection B) Average operational time between two consecutive failures C) Average development time per feature D) Average time to recover from a failure Answer: B Explanation: MTBF quantifies reliability by calculating the mean interval between failures during operation.
Practice Exam
Explanation: High impact but low likelihood risks are often accepted with contingency plans and periodic review. Question 34. The “Definition of Done” (DoD) in Scrum should include all EXCEPT: A) Code reviewed and merged B) Unit tests passed with ≥80% coverage C) Feature shipped to production D) Documentation updated Answer: C Explanation: Shipping to production is part of the release process, not a mandatory condition for a story’s DoD within a sprint. Question 35. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using orthogonal array testing over exhaustive testing? A) Guarantees 100% coverage of all combinations B) Reduces test count while still detecting interaction faults C) Eliminates the need for test data generation D) Provides performance metrics automatically Answer: B Explanation: Orthogonal arrays systematically sample combinations to uncover interaction defects with far fewer tests than exhaustive enumeration. Question 36. In a state transition diagram, a “dead‑end” state is one that: A) Has no outgoing transitions B) Loops back to itself on every input C) Has both incoming and outgoing transitions
Practice Exam
D) Represents the initial system state Answer: A Explanation: A dead‑end (or sink) state cannot transition to any other state, indicating a possible design flaw. Question 37. Which of the following best describes “shift‑left testing”? A) Performing testing after the product is released B) Moving testing activities earlier in the development lifecycle C) Using only automated tests to reduce manual effort D) Testing only the UI layer of an application Answer: B Explanation: “Shift‑left” emphasizes early testing (e.g., unit, static analysis) to catch defects sooner. Question 38. In a DevOps environment, the “canary release” technique is used to: A) Deploy the entire system to all users simultaneously B) Release a new version to a small subset of users first to monitor impact C) Roll back automatically after any failure detection D) Perform load testing on a replica environment Answer: B Explanation: Canary releases limit exposure, allowing teams to validate behavior before full rollout. Question 39. Which type of test is most appropriate for verifying that an API conforms to its OpenAPI (Swagger) specification? A) Unit test
Practice Exam
A) Meeting all Level A success criteria only B) Meeting Level A and Level AA success criteria C) Meeting Level AAA criteria as well D) No specific success criteria, only user testing Answer: B Explanation: Level AA builds upon Level A, requiring both sets of success criteria to be satisfied. Question 43. Which of the following is a primary goal of a “fuzz test”? A) Measure response time under load B) Verify correct handling of malformed or random inputs C) Ensure UI elements are correctly labeled D) Validate database schema migrations Answer: B Explanation: Fuzz testing feeds unexpected, random data to discover crashes, assertion failures, or security flaws. Question 44. When using a data‑driven test automation framework, test data is typically stored in: A) Hard‑coded variables within test scripts B) External sources such as CSV, Excel, or databases C) Inline comments in the source code D) Binary executable resources Answer: B Explanation: Data‑driven frameworks separate test logic from data, allowing multiple data sets from external files.
Practice Exam
Question 45. The “Spike” testing type is most useful for: A) Verifying long‑term stability over weeks B) Determining system behavior under a sudden, massive load increase C) Measuring average response time under normal load D) Testing data migration scripts Answer: B Explanation: Spike testing applies an abrupt, intense load to observe how the system handles sudden traffic surges. Question 46. Which of the following best describes “technical debt” in software development? A) Money owed to vendors for tools B) The cost of fixing known design or code deficiencies later C) Unpaid salaries of developers D) Licenses that have expired Answer: B Explanation: Technical debt represents shortcuts or sub‑optimal solutions that will require future effort to remediate. Question 47. In a test coverage matrix, “branch coverage” ensures that: A) Every line of code is executed at least once B) Every possible decision outcome (true/false) is exercised C) Every possible path through the program is executed D) Every function call is logged Answer: B
Practice Exam
C) It is a type of performance testing. D) It only applies to UI testing. Answer: B Explanation: Mutation testing creates mutants (small faults) to see if tests detect them, assessing test quality. Question 51. In the context of software reliability, “Mean Time Between System Failure” (MTBSF) differs from MTBF because: A) MTBSF includes planned maintenance downtime. B) MTBSF measures only hardware failures. C) MTBSF excludes minor defects that do not cause system failure. D) MTBSF is calculated in days, not hours. Answer: C Explanation: MTBSF focuses on failures that cause the entire system to stop functioning, ignoring minor issues. Question 52. Which of the following is a primary purpose of a “walkthrough” in a formal technical review? A) To formally certify the product for release B) To educate participants about the product’s design and gather informal feedback C) To enforce strict defect counting metrics D) To replace all other testing activities Answer: B Explanation: Walkthroughs are informal reviews aimed at knowledge sharing and early defect detection.
Practice Exam
Question 53. A “service level objective” (SLO) is: A) A contractual penalty clause for missed deadlines B) A measurable target for a specific service attribute (e.g., 99.9% uptime) C) The total cost of operating a service D) A design pattern for microservices communication Answer: B Explanation: SLOs define the desired performance or reliability levels for a service. Question 54. In the context of CI/CD, “blue‑green deployment” aims to: A) Deploy code simultaneously to two environments and switch traffic after verification B) Deploy only to a staging environment for manual testing C) Perform canary releases to a subset of users D) Run automated UI tests on a green-colored theme Answer: A Explanation: Blue‑green deployment maintains two identical production environments; traffic is switched to the new (“green”) after validation. Question 55. Which of the following is a characteristic of a “high‑cohesion, low‑coupling” design? A) Modules depend heavily on many other modules. B) Each module performs many unrelated responsibilities. C) Modules are focused on a single purpose and have minimal dependencies. D) Code is duplicated across many modules. Answer: C Explanation: High cohesion means a module’s responsibilities are closely related; low coupling means few dependencies.
