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RCIS- Pharmacology 2026-
Which analgesic also reduces myocardial oxygen demand through arterial and venous dilation and decreased HR? a. aspirin b. morphine c. midazolam (versed) d. fentanyl (sublimaze) a. morphine Fentanyl (sublimaze) is primarily a: a. sedative b. amnesiac c. painkiller d. muscle relaxant b. painkiller What is reversal agent for Fentanyl (sublimaze)? a. vitamin K b. protamine c. naloxone (narcan) d. flumazenil (romazicon) c. naloxone (narcan) A long acting benzodiazepine sedative is: a. morphine b. diazepam (valium) c. midazolam (versed) d. acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)
a. diazepam (valium) What is the concentration of 2 grams of lidocaine in 500 cc of D5W? a. 4 mg/ml b. 4 mcg/ml c. 20 mg/ml d. 0.1 gm/ml a. 4 mg/ml Calculate the concentration of 1 gram of epinephrine in 250 ml. a. 4 mg/ml b. 4 mcg/ml c. 20 mg/ml d. 0.1 gm/ml a. 4 mg/ml To mix a dopamine drip to a strength of 1600 mcg/ml in a 250 ml saline bag add: a. 0.4 mg to the 250 ml bag b. 4 mg to the 250 ml bag c. 400 mg to the 250 ml bag d. 4 grams to the 250 ml bag b. 400 mg to the 250 ml bag Don't administer to a diabetic patient taking NPH insulin: a. protamine b. dobutamine c. beta blocker d. amiodarone a. protamine Don't administer IV to an asthmatic: a. nitroglycerine b. calcium blockers c. beta blockers d. high levels of O c. beta blockers Osmolality refers to the ability of contrast to: a. dissociate into ionic compnents b. excrete water via the kidneys c. eliminate Iodine via the kidneys d. draw water into the vascular space d. draw water into the vascular space Your heart failure patient in the cath lab becomes extremely short of breath. The physician orders IV lasix (furosemide). You then expect for the physician to order a/an:
c. glucose 6 phosphatese (G6P) d. creatine kinase (CK-MB isoenzyme) c. glucose 6 phosphatese (G6P) For a diabetic patient with post-cath decreased renal function give: a. hemodialysis b. IV saline hydration c. lasix 100 mg IVP d. mannitol 50 grams IV drip b. IV saline hydration An elderly diabetic patient on metformin remains on Plavix and Aspirin post PCI. Despite hydration pre-cath she becomes oliguric post-cath. Which lab value should be most closely monitored for several days post-cath? a. CK/Troponin b. BUN/ creatinine c. ACT/INR & Hct d. C-reactive protein b. BUN/ creatinine Iohexol (omnipaque), Ioversol (optiray) and Iopamidol (isovue) are: a. low osmolarity nonionic contrast agents b. low osmolarity ionic contrast agents c. iso-osmolarity nonionic contrast agents d. iso-osmolarity ionic contrast agents a. low osmolarity nonionic contrast agents Which contrast agent has the lowest osmolarity? It is reported to have the lowest incidence of allergic reactions and no increase in adverse coronary events. a. Iopamidol (isovue) b. Ioxaglate (hexabrix) c. Iodixanol (visipaque) d. Iohexol (omnipaque) c. Iodixanol (visipaque) What is the drug of choice for coronary vasospasm? a. adenosine b. lidocaine c. nitroglycerin d. isuprel/isoproterenol c. nitroglycerin IC verapamil or nicardipine may be called for in case of: a. aneurysm of SVG b. coronary thrombosis c. coronary artery spasm
d. SVT with hypotension e. NSTEMI with hypotension c. coronary artery spasm Before injecting a cocktail of anticoagulants and antispasmotics into the radial artery it may be mixed with 10 ml of the patients blood and injected. Why is it mixed with blood prior to injection? a. this allows slower administration (over 1 - 2 min) b. to prevent clotting in the hand and access site c. reduce the burning sensation in the hand d. reduce incidence of hematoma at the site c. reduce the burning sensation in the hand Which of the following is NOT an appropriate pre-med for a catheterization patient with a history of contrast allergies? a. benadryl b. amrinone c. cimetidine d. prednisone b. amrinone If a patient comes to cardiac catheterization with a stated allergy to topical iodine, it is most important to: a. not use iodinated contrast agents b. use only low osmolar contrast agents c. use 10% clorox as the surgical scrub d. use hibiclens (chlorhexidine) as the surgical scrub d. use hibiclens (chlorhexidine) as the surgical scrub How is radiographic contrast eliminated from the body? a. is is broken down by the liver and metabolized b it is broken down by the thyroid and metabolized c. filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine d. filtered out and excreted through the small intestine c. filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine At cath a patient is given IV ergonovine (methylergonovine). He then develops a positive response with acute chest pain. What procedures should you anticipate next? a. emergency angioplasty or bypass surgery b. echocardiogram, ventriculogram, and IC Adenosine c. 12 lead ECG, coronary angiograms, and IC Nitroglycerin d. CPR, temporary pacemaker placement and/or cardioversion c. 12 lead ECG, coronary angiograms, and IC Nitroglycerin Ergonovine (methylergonovine or methergine) may be administered during a cardiac cath to:
Class I antiarrhythmics cause conduction velocity and are termed. a. increased, beta blockers b. decreased, beta blockers c. increased, membrane stabilizing agents d. decreased, membrane stabilizing agents d. decreased, membrane stabilizing agents In the Vaughan Williams classification, class II antiarrhythmics are termed: a. alpha blockers b. beta blockers c. ace inhibitors d. sodium channel blockers b. beta blockers Drugs that affect phase 0 of action potential are what class antiarrhythmic in the Vaughan Williams classification? a. 0 b. I c. II d. III e. IV b. I In symptomatic bradycardia and A-V block, which of the following is contraindicated? a. epinephrine b. atropine c. dopamine d. amiodarone d. amiodarone All the following are mechanisms of anti-tachycardia agents EXCEPT: a. slow sodium influx b. slow calcium influx c. increased sympathetic response (sympatho-mimetic) d. increased parasympathetic (parasympatho-mimetic) c. increased sympathetic response (sympatho-mimetic) A patient has arrived from the ER with a symptomatic narrow QRS complex tachycardia. The first treatment should be: a. cardiovert b. give lidocaine c. give amiodarone d. try vagal maneuvers d. try vagal maneuvers
To treat symptomatic unstable adult SVT infuse: a. adenosine 6mg push b. adenosine 25 mg push c. amiodarone 150mg over 10 min d. amiodarone 300mg push a. adenosine 6mg push What is the active half life of adenosine? a. 10 - 30 secs b. 10 - 20 mins c. 6 - 12 hours d. 1 - 2 weeks a. 10 - 30 secs What is the elimination half life of amiodarone? a. 20 - 40 mins b. 12 - 24 hours c. 2 - 3 days d. 4 - 8 weeks d. 4 - 8 weeks Patient comes to the ER in polymorphic V-tach, who is unresponsive with BP of 80/ mmHg. What should you do first? a. cardiovert 150 j biphasic b. defibrillate 200 j biphasic c. give epinephrine 1 mg IV d. give vasopressin 40 units IV b. defibrillate 200 j biphasic A synthetic catecholamine drug that is a pure beta stimulant and increase myocardial O2 consumption is: a. atropine b. dopamine c. metaraminol (aramine) d. isoproterenol (isuprel) d. isoproterenol (isuprel) When IV Isoproterenol (Isuprel) is administered to a coronary patient, what complication should be watched for? a. VF, VT b. AV blocks c. hypotension d. bradycardia, asystole a. VF, VT
b. coumadin c. ticagrelor d. captopril c. ticagrelor What is the generic name for Plavix? a. clopidogrel b. coumadin c. ticagrelor d. captopril a. clopidogrel What is the generic name for Coumadin? a. plavix b. warfarin c. ticagrelor d. captopril b. warfarin What is the generic name for ReoPro? a. plavix b. coumadin c. abciximab d. captopril c. abciximab What is the generic name for Angiomax? a. plavix b. coumadin c. ticagrelor d. bivalirudin d. bivalirudin What is the trade name for Enoxaparin Sodium? a. plavix b. coumadin c. lovenox d. captopril c. lovenox What is the generic name for Integrilin? a. eptifibatide b. coumadin c. ticagrelor d. captopril a. eptifibatide
What is the brand name for Prasugrel? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil b. effient What is the brand name for Rivaroxaban? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil a. xarelto What is the brand name for Tirofiban? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. verapamil c. aggrastat What is the brand name for Verapamil? a. xarelto b. effient c. aggrastat d. isoptin d. isoptin What is the generic name for Cardizem? a. amlodipine b. norvasc c. diltiazem d. nifedipine c. diltiazem What is the brand name for Amlodipine? a. valsartan b. norvasc c. diltiazem d. nifedipine b. norvasc What is the brand name for Nifedipine? a. amlodipine b. norvasc
What is the generic name for Demerol? a. valium b. meperidine c. propranolol d. fentanyl b. meperidine What is the brand name for Fentanyl? a. valium b. demerol c. propranolol d. sublimaze d. sublimaze What is the generic name for Lasix? a. benadryl b. furosemide c. pepcid d. versed b. furosemide What is the generic name for Benadryl? a. diphenhydramine b. furosemide c. pepcid d. versed a. diphenhydramine What is the brand name for Prednisone? a. benadryl b. furosemide c. pepcid d. solu-medrol d. solu-medrol What is the generic name for Pepcid? a. benadryl b. furosemide c. famotidine d. versed c. famotidine What is the generic name for Versed? a. benadryl b. furosemide
c. pepcid d. midazolam d. midazolam What is the drug used to reverse Versed? a. pepcid b. benadryl c. romazicon d. fentanyl c. romazicon What is the drug used to reverse Fentanyl? a. pepcid b. benadryl c. romazicon d. naloxone d. naloxone What best describes the antibiotic Ancef? (choose 2) a. Broad spectrum antibiotic b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Narrow spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall c. Narrow spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall What best describes the antibiotic Vancomycin? (choose 2) a. Narrow spectrum antibiotic b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Broad spectrum antibiotic d. prevents bacterial from building a cell wall b. antibiotics work by preventing bacteria from building a cell wall c. Broad spectrum antibiotic In the cath lab, what medications when combined with routine nitroglycerine can lead to severe hypotension? a. NPH insulin b. ARBs (losartan, candesartan) c. NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen) d. Sildenafil (viagra) and vardenafil (levitra) d. Sildenafil (viagra) and vardenafil (levitra) For patients in atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic range of Coumadin is an INR of: a. 0.8-1. b. 2.0-3. c. 12 - 15 sec d. 200 - 300 sec b. 2.0-3. At the beginning of a complex PTCA/stent case on a 200lb man, 10,000 units of unfractionated heparin were administered. One hour into the procedure the ACT is
b. clopidogrel (plavix) c. eptifibatide (integrilin) d. tirofiban (aggrastat) b. clopidogrel (plavix) Which of the following is NOT an anti-platelet drug? a. ticlopidine (ticlid) b. clopidogrel (plavix) c. warfarin (coumadin) d. acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) c. warfarin (coumadin) Aspirin works in blood because it interferes with: a. ADP receptors b. angiotensine II receptors c. binding of thrombin to fibrinogen d. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin e. prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A e. prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A IV Heparin administration to patients with myocardial infarction: a. lyes clots b. dissolves clots c. prevents thrombin formation d. prevents platelet aggregation c. prevents thrombin formation Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH) is different from unfractionated Heparin in that: (select 2 answers) a. LMWH is administered subcutaneously b. LMWH must be monitored with PPT not ACT c. LMWH has an increased risk of thrombocytopenia d. LMWH cannot be completely reversed with Protamine a. LMWH is administered subcutaneously d. LMWH cannot be completely reversed with Protamine In STEMI the time to treatment is critical. If definitive treatment can be given within 3 hours of symptoms, the treatment with the lowest mortality is? a. emergency PCI b. emergency CABG surgery c. thrombolysis in hospital d. thrombolysis out hospital (at EMS scene) c. emergency PCI Which of following drugs is benzodiazepine? a. midazolam (versed)
b. fentanyl (sublimaze) c. nifedipine (procardia) d. flumazenil (romazicon) c. midazolam (versed) IV Flumazenil (romazicon) is used to: a. induce amnesia b. induce analgesia c. reverse fentanyl (sublimaze) d. reverse midazolam (versed) d. reverse midazolam (versed) In the cath lab the most sensitive parameter to monitor for over sedation is: a. BP b. pulse rate c. O2 saturation d. respiratory rate c. O2 saturation
