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respiratory and cardiology, Quizzes of Nursing

Bicol University (BU)Nursing

practice questions with answers

Typology: Quizzes

2020/2021

Uploaded on 05/18/2022

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1. Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute bronchitis. A nurse administers the
medication, knowing that the primary action of this medication is to:
A. Promote expectoration.
B. Suppress the cough.
C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway.
D. Prevent infection.
2. A client is receiving isoetharine hydrochloride (Bronkosol) via a nebulizer. The nurse monitors the
client for which side effect of this medication?
A. Constipation
B. Diarrhea
C. Bradycardia
D. Tachycardia
3. A nurse teaches a client about the use of a respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client indicated a
need for further teaching?
A. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler well before use.
B. Press the canister down with your finger as he breathes in.
C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales.
D. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if more than one puff has been prescribed.
4. A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which of the following questions is of most
importance to the nurse assessing this client?
A. “Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?”
B. “Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?”
C. “Can you hold your breath easily?”
D. “Are you able to hold your arms above your head?”
5. A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A nurse would implement which
of the following nursing interventions for this client?
A. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours
B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids
C. Administering atropine intravenously
D. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed).
6. A client has an order to have radial ABG drawn. Before drawing the sample, a nurse occludes the:
A. Brachial and radial arteries, and then releases them and observes the circulation of the hand.
B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process
with the other artery.
C. Radial artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.
D. Ulnar artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the client has a “barrel
chest.” The nurse interprets that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow
limitation?
A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
B. Emphysema
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis
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Download respiratory and cardiology and more Quizzes Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

  1. Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed for a client with acute bronchitis. A nurse administers the medication, knowing that the primary action of this medication is to: A. Promote expectoration. B. Suppress the cough. C. Relax smooth muscles of the bronchial airway. D. Prevent infection.
  2. A client is receiving isoetharine hydrochloride (Bronkosol) via a nebulizer. The nurse monitors the client for which side effect of this medication? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Bradycardia D. Tachycardia
  3. A nurse teaches a client about the use of a respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client indicated a need for further teaching? A. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler well before use. B. Press the canister down with your finger as he breathes in. C. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales. D. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if more than one puff has been prescribed.
  4. A female client is scheduled to have a chest radiograph. Which of the following questions is of most importance to the nurse assessing this client? A. “Is there any possibility that you could be pregnant?” B. “Are you wearing any metal chains or jewelry?” C. “Can you hold your breath easily?” D. “Are you able to hold your arms above your head?”
  5. A client has just returned to a nursing unit following bronchoscopy. A nurse would implement which of the following nursing interventions for this client? A. Encouraging additional fluids for the next 24 hours B. Ensuring the return of the gag reflex before offering foods or fluids C. Administering atropine intravenously D. Administering small doses of midazolam (Versed).
  6. A client has an order to have radial ABG drawn. Before drawing the sample, a nurse occludes the: A. Brachial and radial arteries, and then releases them and observes the circulation of the hand. B. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases one, evaluates the color of the hand, and repeats the process with the other artery. C. Radial artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand. D. Ulnar artery and observes for color changes in the affected hand.
  7. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the client has a “barrel chest.” The nurse interprets that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitation? A. Chronic obstructive bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Bronchial asthma D. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis
  1. A client has been taking benzonatate (Tessalon Perles) as prescribed. A nurse concludes that the medication is having the intended effect if the client experiences: A. Decreased anxiety level. B. Increased comfort level. C. Reduction of N/V. D. Decreased frequency and intensity of cough.
  2. Which of the following would be an expected outcome for a client recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection? The client will: A. Maintain a fluid intake of 800 ml every 24 hours. B. Experience chills only once a day. C. Cough productively without chest discomfort. D. Experience less nasal obstruction and discharge.
  3. Which of the following individuals would the nurse consider to have the highest priority for receiving an influenza vaccination? A. A 60-year-old man with a hiatal hernia. B. A 36-year-old woman with 3 children. C. A 50-year-old woman caring for a spouse with cancer. D. A 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis.
  4. A client with allergic rhinitis asks the nurse what he should do to decrease his symptoms. Which of the following instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give the client? A. “Use your nasal decongestant spray regularly to help clear your nasal passages.” B. “Ask the doctor for antibiotics. Antibiotics will help decrease the secretion.” C. “It is important to increase your activity. A daily brisk walk will help promote drainage.” D. “Keep a diary when your symptoms occur. This can help you identify what precipitates your attacks.”
  5. An elderly client has been ill with the flu, experiencing headache, fever, and chills. After 3 days, she developed a cough productive of yellow sputum. The nurse auscultates her lungs and hears diffuse crackles. How would the nurse best interpret these assessment findings? A. It is likely that the client is developing a secondary bacterial pneumonia. B. The assessment findings are consistent with influenza and are to be expected. C. The client is getting dehydrated and needs to increase her fluid intake to decrease secretions D. The client has not been taking her decongestants and bronchodilators as prescribed.
  6. Guaifenesin 300 mg four times daily has been ordered as an expectorant. The dosage strength of the liquid is 200mg/5ml. How many mL should the nurse administer each dose? Fill in the blank and record your final answer using one decimal place.
  7. Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) has been ordered as a nasal decongestant. Which of the following is a possible side effect of this drug? A. Constipation B. Bradycardia C. Diplopia D. Restlessness
  8. A client with COPD reports steady weight loss and being “too tired from just breathing to eat.” Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate when planning nutritional interventions for this client?

D. While taking a deep breath and holding it.

  1. The nurse teaches a client with COPD to assess for s/s of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following s/s would be included in the teaching plan? A. Clubbing of nail beds B. Hypertension C. Peripheral edema D. Increased appetite
  2. The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected? A. Normal breath sounds B. Prolonged inspiration C. Normal chest movement D. Coarse crackles and rhonchi
  3. Which of the following ABG abnormalities should the nurse anticipate in a client with advanced COPD? A. Increased PaCO B. Increased PaO C. Increased pH D. Increased oxygen saturation
  4. Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with COPD? A. Low fat, low cholesterol B. Bland, soft diet C. Low-Sodium diet D. High calorie, high-protein diet
  5. The nurse is planning to teach a client with COPD how to cough effectively. Which of the following instructions should be included? A. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough 3 to 4 times on exhalation. B. Lie flat on back, splint the thorax, take two deep breaths and cough. C. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and then cough forcefully. D. Assume a side-lying position, extend the arm over the head, and alternate deep breathing with coughing.
  6. A 34-year-old woman with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client? A. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes. B. Draw blood for an ABG analysis and send the client for a chest x-ray. C. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth. D. Administer bronchodilators.
  7. The nurse would anticipate which of the following ABG results in a client experiencing a prolonged, severe asthma attack? A. Decreased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and decreased pH. B. Increased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and decreased pH.

C. Increased PaCO2, increased PaO2, and increased pH. D. Decreased PaCO2, decreased PaO2, and increased pH.

  1. A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. What is the rationale for the use of steroids in clients with asthma? A. Corticosteroids promote bronchodilation. B. Corticosteroids act as an expectorant. C. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect. D. Corticosteroids prevent development of respiratory infections.
  2. The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply. A. The inhaler is held upright. B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication. C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs. D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration. E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
  3. A client is prescribed metaproterenol (Alupent) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), two puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs the client to report side effects. Which of the following are potential side effects of metaproterenol? A. Irregular heartbeat B. Constipation C. Pedal edema D. Decreased heart rate.
  4. A client has been taking flunisolide (Aerobid), two inhalations a day, for treatment of asthma. He tells the nurse that he has painful, white patches in his mouth. Which response by the nurse would be the most appropriate? A. “This is an anticipated side-effect of your medication. It should go away in a couple of weeks.” B. “You are using your inhaler too much and it has irritated your mouth.” C. “You have developed a fungal infection from your medication. It will need to be treated with an antibiotic.” D. “Be sure to brush your teeth and floss daily. Good oral hygiene will treat this problem.”
  5. Which of the following health promotion activities should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a client with asthma? A. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the treatment plan. B. Monitor peak flow numbers after meals and at bedtime. C. Eliminate stressors in the work and home environment. D. Use sedatives to ensure uninterrupted sleep at night.
  6. The client with asthma should be taught which of the following is one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack? A. Occupational exposure to toxins. B. Viral respiratory infections. C. Exposure to cigarette smoke. D. Exercising in cold temperatures.
  1. The most reliable index to determine the respiratory status of a client is to: A. Observe the chest rising and falling. B. Observe the skin and mucous membrane color. C. Listen and feel the air movement. D. Determine the presence of a femoral pulse.
  2. A client with COPD has developed secondary polycythemia. Which nursing diagnosis would be included in the plan of care because of the polycythemia? A. Fluid volume deficit related to blood loss. B. Impaired tissue perfusion related to thrombosis. C. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea. D. Risk for infection related to suppressed immune response.
  3. The physician has scheduled a client for a left pneumonectomy. The position that will most likely be ordered postoperatively for his is the: A. Nonoperative side or back B. Operative side or back C. Back only D. Back or either side.
  4. Assessing a client who has developed atelectasis postoperatively, the nurse will most likely find: A. A flushed face. B. Dyspnea and pain. C. Decreased temperature. D. Severe cough and no pain.
  5. A fifty-year-old client has a tracheostomy and requires tracheal suctioning. The first intervention in completing this procedure would be to: A. Change the tracheostomy dressing. B. Provide humidity with a trach mask. C. Apply oral or nasal suction. D. Deflate the tracheal cuff.
  6. A client states that the physician said the tidal volume is slightly diminished and asks the nurse what this means. The nurse explains that the tidal volume is the amount of air: A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration. B. Exhaled after there is a normal inspiration. C. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be exhaled. D. Forcibly inspired over and above a normal respiration.
  7. An acceleration in oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin, and thus oxygen delivery to the tissues, is caused by: A. A decreasing oxygen pressure in the blood. B. An increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood. C. A decreasing oxygen pressure and/or an increasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood. D. An increasing oxygen pressure and/or a decreasing carbon dioxide pressure in the blood.
  8. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses: A. Cannula B. Simple Face mask C. Non-rebreather mask

D. Venturi mask ANSWERS:

  1. C
  2. D
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B
  6. B
  7. B
  8. D
  9. D
  10. C
  11. D
  12. A
  14. D
  15. A
  16. A
  17. D
  18. A
  19. D
  20. A
  21. B
  22. B
  23. C
  24. D
  25. A
  26. D
  27. A
  28. D
  29. B

CARDIO

  1. A nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. The nurse assesses the cardiac rhythm as: A. Normal sinus rhythm B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sick sinus syndrome D. First-degree heart block
  2. A nurse notices frequent artifacts on the ECG monitor for a client whose leads are connected by cable to a console at the bedside. The nurse examines the client to determine the cause. Which of the following items is unlikely to be responsible for the artifact? A. Frequent movement of the client. B. Tightly secured cable connections. C. Leads applied over hairy areas. D. Leads applied to the limbs.
  3. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but over 100. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing: A. Premature ventricular contractions B. Ventricular tachycardia C. Ventricular fibrillation D. Sinus tachycardia
  4. A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client’s room and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following? A. Immediately defibrillate B. Prepare for pacemaker insertion. C. Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously. D. Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously.
  5. A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia? A. Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily. B. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. C. Lie down flat in bed. D. Remove any metal jewelry.
  6. A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. A nurse would place a priority on the assessment of which of the following items? A. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion. B. Sensation of palpitations. C. Causative factors such as caffeine. D. Precipitating factors such as infection.
  1. A client has developed atrial fibrillation, which has a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. A nurse assesses the client for: A. Hypotension and dizziness B. Nausea and vomiting C. Hypertension and headache D. Flat neck veins
  2. A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client’s rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are wavy lines. The QRS complexes measure 0.08 second, but they are irregular, with a rate of 120 beats a minute. The nurse interprets this rhythm as: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Ventricular fibrillation
  3. A client with rapid rate atrial fibrillation asks a nurse why the physician is going to perform carotid massage. The nurse responds that this procedure may stimulate the: A. Vagus nerve to slow the heart rate. B. Vagus nerve to increase the heart rate; overdriving the rhythm. C. Diaphragmatic nerve to slow the heart rate. D. Diaphragmatic nerve to overdrive the rhythm.
  4. A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client’s rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves or definable QRS complexes. Instead, there are coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. The nurse assesses this rhythm to be: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Atrial fibrillation D. Asystole
  5. While caring for a client who has sustained an MI, the nurse notes eight PVCs in one minute on the cardiac monitor. The client is receiving an IV infusion of D5W and oxygen at 2 L/minute. The nurse’s first course of action should be to: A. Increase the IV infusion rate B. Notify the physician promptly. C. Increase the oxygen concentration. D. Administer a prescribed analgesic.
  6. The adaptations of a client with complete heart block would most likely include: A. Nausea and vertigo B. Flushing and slurred speech C. Cephalalgia and blurred vision D. Syncope and slow ventricular rate
  7. A client with a bundle branch block is on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should expect to observe: A. Sagging ST segments. B. Absence of P wave configurations. C. Inverted T waves following each QRS complex. D. Widening of QRS complexes to 0.12 second or greater.

ANSWER KEY:

1. A

2. B

3. B

4. C

5. B

6. A

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. B

11. B

12. D

13. D

14. B

15. A & B

16. C

17. B

18. D

19. C

20. C