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Question 1. Which component of the galley is checked for proper operation during the pre‑flight inspection? A) Oven temperature gauge B) Boiler pressure relief valve C) Circuit breaker status D) Waste‑bin flap latch Answer: C Explanation: Circuit breakers must be verified to ensure all galley electrical equipment can be powered safely. Question 2. The oxygen mask deployment system is located in which part of the Passenger Service Unit (PSU)? A) Upper left corner B) Center panel C) Lower right corner D) Behind the call light Answer: B Explanation: The mask deployment mechanism is centrally positioned in the PSU for rapid access. Question 3. On a Boeing 737, the L1 exit is primarily used for which purpose in an emergency evacuation? A) Crew‑only exit B) Primary passenger evacuation on the left side C) Service equipment access D) Only for cargo loading Answer: B Explanation: L1 is one of the two main left‑hand side passenger exits used in evacuations.
Question 4. Which fire class involves flammable liquids such as jet fuel? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D Answer: B Explanation: Class B fires are fueled by flammable liquids, including aviation fuels. Question 5. The Halon 1301 extinguisher is most effective against which fire class? A) Class A only B) Class B and C C) Class D only D) All fire classes Answer: B Explanation: Halon extinguishes flammable liquid (B) and electrical (C) fires without leaving residue. Question 6. In the fire drill, the crew member designated as “Communicator” is responsible for: A) Extinguishing the fire B) Directing passengers to exits C) Relaying information to the flight deck D) Carrying the PBE Answer: C Explanation: The Communicator provides the captain with status updates and required assistance. Question 7. The automatic fire extinguisher in the aircraft lavatory uses which agent?
B) Nature, Intent, Time, Special instructions C) Navigation, Instruments, Terrain, Speed D) None of the above Answer: B Explanation: NITS covers the nature of the emergency, crew intentions, timing, and any special instructions. Question 11. During a ditching evacuation, the correct command to use is: A) “All passengers, stay seated!” B) “Brace for impact, then evacuate!” C) “Evacuate immediately, life‑rafts ready!” D) “Prepare for water exit, stay calm!” Answer: D Explanation: Clear, calm commands are essential for an orderly water evacuation. Question 12. The primary survey in first aid follows which sequence? A) DEB (Disability, Exposure, Breathing) B) ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) C) CPR (Circulation, Pulse, Respiration) D) VITAL (Vision, Inspection, Touch, Auditory, Light) Answer: B Explanation: ABC is the universally accepted initial assessment order. Question 13. The secondary survey is abbreviated as: A) DE (Disability, Examine) B) RACE (Rescue, Assess, Control, Evaluate)
C) SAMPLE (Signs, Allergies, Medications, Past, Last) D) PQRST (Pain, Quality, Radiation, Severity, Time) Answer: A Explanation: DE focuses on identifying any dysfunction after the primary survey. Question 14. On the AVPU scale, a patient who only responds to painful stimulus is classified as: A) Alert B) Voice C) Pain D) Unresponsive Answer: C Explanation: “Pain” indicates response only to painful stimuli. Question 15. The recommended compression‑to‑ventilation ratio for adult CPR is: A) 15: B) 30: C) 30: D) 20: Answer: B Explanation: Current guidelines specify 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths for adults. Question 16. Before using an AED, the rescuer must: A) Remove the patient’s clothing only from the chest area B) Apply a tourniquet C) Give the patient a dose of epinephrine D) Ensure the patient is breathing normally
Answer: B Explanation: Direct pressure is the first‑line method to stop arterial flow. Question 20. To prevent cross‑contamination in cabin food service, crew should: A) Store raw meat on top of ready‑to‑eat items B) Use the same cutting board for all foods C) Separate raw and cooked foods and use color‑coded utensils D) Rinse utensils with cold water only Answer: C Explanation: Color‑coded separation reduces the risk of bacterial transfer. Question 21. When a needle is found in the cabin, the correct disposal method is: A) Place it in a regular trash bag B) Flush it down the lavatory C) Store it in a designated sharps container and report to the flight deck D) Hand it to another passenger for disposal Answer: C Explanation: Sharps must be secured in a puncture‑proof container and reported. Question 22. The “Insider Threat” in aviation security refers to: A) A passenger with a concealed weapon B) A crew member who may sabotage operations C) A ground‑handling staff member with a bomb D) None of the above Answer: B Explanation: Insider threats involve personnel with authorized access who could cause harm.
Question 23. The “Least Risk Bomb Location” (LRBL) is: A) The cargo hold B) The forward cabin aisle C) The lavatory waste tank D) The galley trash bin Answer: D Explanation: LRBLs are areas where an explosive device poses the lowest risk to passengers and crew. Question 24. In hijack communications, the code “PAN‑PAN” indicates: A) A medical emergency B) A security threat requiring immediate attention C) An urgent but non‑life‑threatening situation D) Normal operations Answer: C Explanation: PAN‑PAN signals an urgent situation that is not immediately life‑threatening. Question 25. A pre‑departure security search of the cabin primarily aims to: A) Verify passenger seat assignments B) Detect prohibited items and weapons C) Check the cleanliness of the aisles D) Ensure all overhead bins are empty Answer: B Explanation: Security searches focus on identifying dangerous or prohibited items. Question 26. Which of the following is a Class 9 dangerous good?
C) Assuming the message was understood D) Using only non‑verbal cues Answer: B Explanation: Repeating back confirms that the message was correctly received. Question 30. Fatigue‑related errors are classified as: A) Skill‑based errors B) Rule‑based errors C) Knowledge‑based errors D) None of the above Answer: A Explanation: Fatigue impairs automatic, routine performance, leading to skill‑based errors. Question 31. The ARR model in situational awareness stands for: A) Assess, React, Resolve B) Anticipate, Recognize, Recover C) Align, Respond, Reevaluate D) Analyze, Report, Refine Answer: B Explanation: ARR guides crew to anticipate, recognize changes, and recover from them. Question 32. In the chain of command, the No. 2 crew member reports directly to: A) The Captain B) The First Officer C) The Chief Purser D) The Ground Operations Manager
Answer: A Explanation: No. 2 is the senior cabin crew member and reports to the Captain. Question 33. According to Ryanair uniform standards, visible tattoos must be: A) Covered with long‑sleeve shirts at all times B) Allowed if they are less than 2 cm C) Covered with a black bandage D) Not displayed while on duty Answer: D Explanation: Ryanair policy requires no visible tattoos during duty. Question 34. A passenger with reduced mobility (PRM) requires: A) An extra meal service B) Assistance with boarding, deplaning, and seat location C) A dedicated cabin crew member for the whole flight D) No special assistance Answer: B Explanation: PRMs need help with aircraft access and appropriate seating. Question 35. The minimum reporting time for an incident after landing is: A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 60 minutes Answer: C
Question 39. The correct command to give passengers during an emergency slide deployment is: A) “Sit down and fasten your seatbelt!” B) “Brace for impact, keep hands inside!” C) “Evacuate immediately, leave all belongings!” D) “Remain calm, follow crew instructions!” Answer: D Explanation: Calm, clear instructions improve compliance and safety. Question 40. The primary purpose of the waste‑bin flap check in the galley is to: A) Ensure the bin can be opened quickly in case of fire B) Verify the bin is empty before takeoff C) Test the fire‑extinguishing system D) Confirm the bin is locked for security Answer: A Explanation: A functional flap allows rapid access for fire suppression. Question 41. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Passenger Service Unit (PSU)? A) Overhead reading lights B) Call‑light button C) Emergency oxygen mask deployment D) Cabin pressure monitoring Answer: D Explanation: Cabin pressure monitoring is performed by aircraft systems, not the PSU. Question 42. In a rapid decompression at cruise altitude, the crew must: A) Keep the cabin doors open to equalize pressure
B) Deploy the oxygen masks and descend below 10 000 ft within 2 minutes C) Turn off all electrical systems D) Initiate a fire drill Answer: B Explanation: Immediate mask use and descent are essential to prevent hypoxia. Question 43. Which fire class is associated with combustible metals such as magnesium? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D Answer: D Explanation: Class D fires involve reactive metals. Question 44. The “Firefighter” role during a cabin fire is primarily responsible for: A) Communicating with the flight deck B) Directing passengers to exits C) Using the appropriate extinguisher to suppress the fire D) Performing first aid on injured passengers Answer: C Explanation: The Firefighter physically combats the fire with the correct equipment. Question 45. The correct sequence for donning Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE) is: A) Pull the mask, fit the facepiece, secure the harness, turn on the regulator B) Secure the harness, pull the mask, fit the facepiece, turn on the regulator C) Turn on the regulator, pull the mask, fit the facepiece, secure the harness
Answer: A Explanation: Planned emergencies are anticipated events that have pre‑defined procedures. Question 49. When a passenger is choking and cannot speak, the correct first‑aid maneuver is: A) Heimlich thrust for adults, back blows for infants B) Immediate CPR C) Give them water to drink D) Perform a head‑tilt‑chin‑lift Answer: A Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver clears airway obstruction in conscious adults; infants receive back blows. Question 50. The correct compression depth for adult CPR is: A) At least 1 inch (2.5 cm) B) At least 2 inches (5 cm) C) At least 3 inches (7.5 cm) D) As deep as possible without causing injury Answer: B Explanation: Guidelines specify a minimum of 2 inches (5 cm) depth. Question 51. AED pads should be placed: A) One on the upper right chest and one on the lower left abdomen B) Both on the sternum C) One on the right upper chest and one on the left lower chest (or side) D) Anywhere on the back Answer: C
Explanation: Proper placement ensures the current passes through the heart. Question 52. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of a stroke? A) Facial droop B) Arm weakness C) Sudden confusion D) Gradual onset of joint pain Answer: D Explanation: Joint pain is unrelated to stroke symptoms. Question 53. A second‑degree burn is best described as: A) Redness only, no blistering B) Partial‑thickness skin damage with blistering C) Full‑thickness skin loss D) Superficial skin irritation Answer: B Explanation: Second‑degree burns affect both epidermis and part of the dermis, causing blisters. Question 54. Venous bleeding is characterized by: A) Bright red, spurting blood B) Dark, steady flow that can be controlled with pressure C) Immediate loss of consciousness D) No bleeding at all Answer: B Explanation: Venous bleeding is slower and can usually be stopped with direct pressure.
A) Confronted aggressively B) Observed discreetly and reported to the lead crew member C) Ignored unless they cause a disturbance D) Asked to leave the aircraft immediately Answer: B Explanation: Observation and proper reporting maintain security without escalation. Question 59. In a hijack situation, the crew code “MIR” indicates: A) Medical emergency B) Minor incident, requires no action C) “May I…?” – a request for clarification D) No standard code; it is not used Answer: D Explanation: “MIR” is not a recognized hijack or security code in aviation. Question 60. During a pre‑departure security check, which item must be inspected first? A) Passenger seat pockets B) Overhead bin contents C) Lavatory waste tank D) Emergency exit door mechanisms Answer: D Explanation: Ensuring exit doors function correctly is a top safety priority. Question 61. Which label indicates a Class 9 dangerous good? A) Red diamond with a flame symbol B) Yellow square with a skull and crossbones
C) Orange square with a “9” inside a white border D) Green circle with a leaf Answer: C Explanation: Class 9 items carry the orange square label with the number 9. Question 62. If a passenger’s lithium‑ion battery is overheating, the crew should: A) Place it in a water‑filled bucket B) Use a CO₂ extinguisher C) Isolate the device, activate the Halon extinguisher, and notify the flight deck D) Allow it to cool naturally Answer: C Explanation: Halon suppresses electrical fires; isolation prevents spread. Question 63. After a dangerous‑goods spill, the crew must complete a: A) Passenger satisfaction survey B) Hazardous Material Incident Report (HMIR) C) Cabin cleaning checklist D) Flight plan amendment Answer: B Explanation: An HMIR documents the incident and actions taken. Question 64. Closed‑Loop Communication reduces errors by: A) Allowing the sender to assume the message was understood B) Requiring the receiver to repeat the instruction back verbatim C) Using only written messages on the flight deck D) Eliminating the need for confirmations
