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Question 1. What is the maximum passenger seating capacity of the Boeing 737‑800 in Ryanair’s configuration? A) 175 B) 189 C) 197 D) 210 Answer: B Explanation: Ryanair configures the 737‑800 with 189 seats, the highest density for that model. Question 2. How many seats does the Boeing 737‑ 8200 “Gamechanger” provide at maximum? A) 185 B) 189 C) 197 D) 203 Answer: C Explanation: The 8200 variant adds eight more seats, reaching a maximum of 197. Question 3. Which row number is deliberately omitted in Ryanair’s cabin layout? A) 12 B) 13 C) 14 D) 15 Answer: B Explanation: For superstition and safety, Ryanair does not include a Row 13. Question 4. On the 737‑800, where are the over‑wing exits located? A) Rows 10/ B) Rows 14/
C) Rows 16/ D) Rows 20/ Answer: C Explanation: The over‑wing exits on the 800 are positioned at rows 16 and 17. Question 5. Which row houses the Mid‑Exit Doors (MED) on the 737‑8200? A) Row 24 B) Row 26 C) Row 28 D) Row 30 Answer: C Explanation: The 8200’s MED are located at row 28, providing an additional evacuation route. Question 6. What is the minimum number of crew members required in the flight deck for a Ryanair flight? A) One pilot B) Two pilots C) Two pilots plus a flight engineer D) Three pilots Answer: B Explanation: Ryanair operates with a two‑pilot cockpit; no flight engineer is required. Question 7. Which feature prevents the flight‑deck door from being opened while the aircraft is pressurised? A) “Lock” button B) “Deny” feature C) “Seal” latch D) “Auto‑Close” sensor Answer: B
B) At the forward entry door (L1) C) In the aisle near row 5 D) At the over‑wing exit Answer: B Explanation: Crew position themselves at the forward entry door (L1) to oversee boarding. Question 12. Which rows are prohibited for stowing cabin baggage? A) Rows 1‑ 5 B) Rows 6‑ 10 C) Exit rows (first and last five rows) D) All rows are permitted Answer: C Explanation: Cabin baggage cannot be placed in the first and last five rows because they contain exit rows. Question 13. What must cabin crew do before fueling the aircraft? A) Turn off all cabin lights B) Lock the lavatory doors C) Close the forward cargo door D) Remove all food carts Answer: B Explanation: The lavatory doors must be locked to prevent accidental activation of the fire detection system during fueling. Question 14. Which rows are subject to special weight‑and‑balance checks? A) Rows 1‑5 and 31 ‑ 35 B) Rows 6‑10 and 26 ‑ 30 C) Rows 15‑20 only D) No rows are singled out
Answer: A Explanation: The first and last five rows affect CG calculations and are monitored closely. Question 15. Until how many minutes before landing may the PA system be used for non‑essential announcements? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes Answer: B Explanation: Ryanair policy restricts non‑essential PA messages to the final 10 minutes before touchdown. Question 16. What interphone code is used to request push‑back? A) 111 B) 1 + ENT C) 222 D) 333 Answer: B Explanation: Pressing “1” followed by the “ENT” key initiates a push‑back request. Question 17. Which colour on the Master Call Panel indicates a fire alarm? A) Amber B) Pink C) Blue D) Red Answer: B Explanation: Pink lights are used to signal fire‑related alerts.
Answer: C Explanation: Two fire‑gloves are stowed in the galley for emergency use. Question 22. At what altitude does the drop‑down oxygen mask system automatically deploy? A) 8 000 ft B) 10 000 ft C) 14 000 ft D) 18 000 ft Answer: C Explanation: The system activates at 14 000 ft to provide supplemental oxygen to passengers. Question 23. Which setting on a portable oxygen bottle delivers a higher flow rate? A) Low Flow B) Medium Flow C) High Flow D) Turbo Flow Answer: C Explanation: “High Flow” supplies a greater volume of oxygen, used for severe hypoxia. Question 24. Which feature distinguishes an infant life jacket from an adult version? A) Built‑in whistle B) Inflatable hood C) Integrated CO₂ cartridge D) No difference; same design Answer: B Explanation: Infant jackets have an inflatable hood to protect the head and airway. Question 25. What type of ELT does Ryanair primarily use on its 737 fleet? A) Type A
B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D Answer: C Explanation: Type C ELTs are mandatory for commercial aircraft and are installed on Ryanair 737s. Question 26. During a loud‑hailer operation, which scenario requires its use? A) Routine cabin announcements B) Passenger call‑button alerts C) Ground‑crew coordination during an emergency evacuation D) In‑flight meal service Answer: C Explanation: The loud‑hailer is reserved for ground‑crew communication in emergencies. Question 27. Which command is given first in an evacuation sequence? A) “Leave everything” B) “Open seatbelts” C) “Proceed to the nearest exit” D) “Deploy slides” Answer: B Explanation: The crew first instructs passengers to “Open seatbelts” before any further actions. Question 28. How are evacuation slides armed for use? A) Pull the handle in the cabin B) Flip the red “ARM” lever in the forward cargo door C) Press the “Slide Deploy” button on the overhead panel D) They are automatically armed when the aircraft is on the ground Answer: B Explanation: The red “ARM” lever, located in the forward cargo door, must be flipped to arm the slides.
B) Oven fire caused by food debris C) Fuel spill fire in the galley D) Cigarette ash fire on a seat Answer: B Explanation: Oven fires involve solid combustible materials and are categorized as BSI. Question 33. What is the primary physical symptom of rapid decompression for crew members? A) Ear pain and possible eardrum rupture B) Sudden dizziness only C) Nausea without ear effects D) Visual disturbances only Answer: A Explanation: Rapid decompression creates a pressure differential causing ear pain and potential rupture. Question 34. Which audible cue typically indicates a slow decompression is occurring? A] Explosive “bang” sound B] Continuous hissing noise C] Complete silence D] Alarm bell Answer: B Explanation: A slow leak produces a hissing sound as air escapes gradually. Question 35. What level of turbulence requires the crew to secure all service items and suspend beverage service? A) Light turbulence B) Moderate turbulence C) Severe turbulence D) No turbulence Answer: C
Explanation: Severe turbulence mandates securing the cabin and halting service for safety. Question 36. In the ABC primary survey, what does “C” stand for? A) Circulation B) Comfort C) Communication D) Compliance Answer: A Explanation: “C” refers to checking the patient’s circulatory status (pulse, bleeding). Question 37. Which medication is most appropriate for an asthmatic passenger experiencing an acute attack? A) Epinephrine auto‑injector B) Salbutamol inhaler C) Antihistamine tablet D) Ibuprofen Answer: B Explanation: A salbutamol (Ventolin) inhaler provides rapid bronchodilation for asthma attacks. Question 38. Anaphylaxis requires immediate administration of which drug? A) Aspirin B) Epinephrine (Epi‑Pen) C) Paracetamol D) Hydrocortisone tablet Answer: B Explanation: Epinephrine is the first‑line treatment for severe allergic reactions. Question 39. The most effective method to cool a child experiencing a febrile convulsion is: A) Ice packs on the neck
Question 43. Which document must a ramp worker present to access the airside? A) Passenger boarding pass B) Airside ID badge C) Driver’s licence D) Flight crew licence Answer: B Explanation: An airside ID badge authorises personnel to work on the movement area. Question 44. Ryanair’s “Clean Wing” policy primarily aims to: A) Reduce fuel consumption B) Prevent foreign object debris (FOD) on the wing surfaces C) Keep the aircraft aesthetically pleasing D) Facilitate wing‑tip cleaning for aesthetics Answer: B Explanation: “Clean Wing” reduces FOD risk, protecting engines and landing gear. Question 45. If a passenger is deemed inadmissible, what is the crew’s first action? A) Immediately remove the passenger from the aircraft B) Report the situation to the cabin supervisor and follow airline protocol C) Call local law enforcement without informing the captain D) Allow the passenger to board but keep them under observation Answer: B Explanation: The crew must inform the cabin supervisor who then follows the established protocol. Question 46. Which child restraint device is approved for use on Ryanair flights? A) Any car seat from a private vehicle B) Amsafe “CRS” child safety seat C) Homemade fabric harness
D) No devices are allowed; children must sit on a lap Answer: B Explanation: Ryanair recognises the Amsafe CRS and similar approved devices. Question 47. What is the mandatory operational language for all Ryanair flight and cabin crew communications? A) English B) Local language of the departure airport C) French D) Any language agreed upon by crew members Answer: A Explanation: English is the required common language for safety and regulatory compliance. Question 48. Which interphone code is used to declare an emergency to the cockpit? A) 111 B) 222 C) 333 D) 999 Answer: B Explanation: Pressing “222” signals an emergency to the flight deck. Question 49. What colour on the Master Call Panel indicates a medical emergency? A) Amber B) Pink C) Blue D) Green Answer: C Explanation: Blue lights are used to denote medical emergencies.
C) Foam D) Dry powder Answer: B Explanation: Halon extinguishers are effective on Class C (electrical) fires. Question 54. How long does a PBE mask provide breathable air at a cabin altitude of 25 000 ft? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes Answer: C Explanation: The PBE supplies 15 minutes of oxygen regardless of altitude, assuming normal consumption. Question 55. Which component of the ELT emits the distress signal? A) Antenna B) Transmitter module C) Battery pack D) GPS unit Answer: B Explanation: The transmitter module generates the emergency signal that is broadcast. Question 56. In a rapid decompression, which of the following is the most immediate physiological effect? A) Hypothermia B) Hypoxia C) Hyperventilation D) Barotrauma to the ears Answer: D
Explanation: The sudden pressure change causes ear barotrauma before hypoxia becomes critical. Question 57. When a passenger experiences a severe allergic reaction, which equipment should be used first? A) Oxygen mask B) Epinephrine auto‑injector C) Antihistamine tablet D) Cold pack Answer: B Explanation: Epinephrine is the immediate life‑saving treatment for anaphylaxis. Question 58. Which colour of the Master Call Panel indicates a fire in the cabin? A) Amber B) Pink C) Blue D) Green Answer: B Explanation: Pink lights are designated for fire alerts. Question 59. What is the correct order of the primary survey (ABC) for an unconscious passenger? A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation B) Breathing, Airway, Circulation C) Circulation, Airway, Breathing D) Airway, Circulation, Breathing Answer: A Explanation: The ABC sequence ensures the airway is clear before assessing breathing and circulation. Question 60. Which of the following is a prohibited item in the cabin for passengers seated in the first five rows?
D) Instruct passengers to assume the brace position Answer: B Explanation: Moderate turbulence requires a seatbelt sign and a brief announcement; service may continue. Question 64. Which of the following is a requirement for the flight‑deck door “Deny” feature to engage? A) Cabin altitude above 10 000 ft B) Cabin pressure equalised with the outside C) Aircraft on the ground with engines running D) Cabin pressurised above 0.8 psi differential Answer: D Explanation: The “Deny” feature locks the door when a pressure differential greater than 0.8 psi exists. Question 65. Which fire‑extinguishing agent is prohibited on Ryanair aircraft due to environmental regulations? A) Halon 1301 B) Water Glycol C) CO₂ D) Dry Powder Answer: A Explanation: Halon is being phased out globally; Ryanair is moving to alternative agents, though existing Halon units remain in service. Question 66. What is the purpose of the “girt‑bar” on an evacuation slide? A) To inflate the slide automatically B) To secure the slide to the aircraft structure C) To act as a hand‑hold for passengers D) To indicate slide deployment status Answer: B
Explanation: Girt‑bars lock the slide to the aircraft, ensuring it remains attached during deployment. Question 67. Which of the following is NOT a function of the loud‑hailer? A) Directing passengers during an evacuation B) Communicating with ground staff in low‑visibility conditions C) Providing in‑flight entertainment announcements D) Alerting nearby vehicles of an emergency stop Answer: C Explanation: Loud‑hailer use is limited to safety and emergency communication, not entertainment. Question 68. During a slow decompression, which crew action is required first? A) Deploy slides immediately B) Don PBE masks and secure the cabin door C) Initiate an emergency descent D) Turn off all cabin lights Answer: C Explanation: The immediate response is to descend to a safe altitude where supplemental oxygen is not required. Question 69. Which of the following is the correct classification for a fire caused by a hot oven element? A) BSI (Burning Solid Ignition) B) Non‑BSI (Electrical) C) Class A (Ordinary combustibles) D) Class D (Metal) Answer: A Explanation: Oven fires involve solid combustible material and are classified as BSI. Question 70. Which of the following is the correct order for the emergency evacuation command?
