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Question 1. Which of the following is the most effective method for preventing the transmission of healthcare‑associated infections? A) Wearing gloves at all times B) Performing hand hygiene before and after each patient contact C) Using disposable equipment for every resident D) Disinfecting surfaces once per shift Answer: B Explanation: Hand hygiene before and after each patient contact is the single most important measure to prevent infection transmission. Question 2. When applying personal protective equipment (PPE) for a resident with suspected COVID‑19, the correct sequence is: A) Gloves → Gown → Mask → Eye protection B) Gown → Mask → Eye protection → Gloves C) Mask → Gloves → Gown → Eye protection D) Eye protection → Gown → Mask → Gloves Answer: B Explanation: The recommended donning order is gown, mask (or respirator), eye protection, then gloves to avoid contaminating the PPE already on. Question 3. The RACE protocol for fire safety stands for: A) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish B) Remove, Alert, Contain, Evacuate C) Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish D) Respond, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate Answer: C Explanation: RACE = Rescue (or remove), Alarm, Confine (close doors), Extinguish (or evacuate if needed). Question 4. Which oxygen safety precaution must a CNA ALWAYS follow?
A) Store oxygen cylinders near flammable materials B) Keep oxygen tubing away from the resident’s face C) Never use oil‑based lubricants on oxygen equipment D) Turn off the oxygen flow when the resident is asleep Answer: C Explanation: Oil‑based lubricants can ignite in an oxygen‑rich environment, so they must never be used. Question 5. A resident suddenly collapses and is not breathing. The first action the CNA should take is: A) Call the resident’s family B) Begin chest compressions immediately C) Retrieve the emergency medication cart D) Activate the call light and shout for help Answer: D Explanation: The CNA should activate the call system and summon help before starting CPR, unless trained and able to start compressions immediately. Question 6. The Heimlich maneuver is indicated for a resident who is: A) Coughing weakly B) Gagging while eating C) Unable to speak, cough, or breathe D) Breathing shallowly after a fall Answer: C Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver is used when the airway is obstructed and the resident cannot speak, cough, or breathe. Question 7. Which of the following signs suggests a resident is experiencing a seizure? A) Slow, shallow breathing B) Sudden onset of jerking movements and loss of consciousness
Explanation: The cuff bladder should be 80% of the arm circumference to avoid inaccurate readings. Question 11. A resident’s systolic blood pressure reads 190 mmHg. The CNA should: A) Record the value and continue routine care B) Re‑measure after 5 minutes, then notify the supervising nurse C) Administer antihypertensive medication immediately D) Lower the resident’s arm and wait for the reading to normalize Answer: B Explanation: High readings should be re‑checked, and any persistent abnormal values must be reported to the nurse. Question 12. When measuring a resident’s height who is unable to stand, the CNA should: A) Estimate based on shoe size B) Use a measuring tape from heel to head while the resident is supine C) Ask the resident to sit on a chair and measure seated height D) Use the resident’s last recorded height from the chart Answer: B Explanation: Measuring length from heel to head while supine provides an accurate height for non‑ambulatory residents. Question 13. Which documentation action is required when a resident’s temperature is 100.4°F (38°C)? A) Document as “normal” because it is only slightly elevated B) Record the value, time, and immediately notify the nurse C) Ignore it if the resident feels fine D) Wait until the next shift to report Answer: B Explanation: Any fever must be documented and reported promptly for further evaluation.
Question 14. The best practice for providing a bed bath to a resident with limited mobility is to: A) Perform the entire bath at once to finish quickly B) Use a single large towel to cover the whole body C) Work from the clean side of the body toward the dirty side D) Keep the resident fully exposed for better cleaning Answer: C Explanation: Moving from clean to dirty prevents re‑contamination of cleaned areas. Question 15. When assisting a resident with perineal care, the CNA should: A) Use a single wipe for the entire area B) Clean from front to back in females and from back to front in males C) Apply soap directly to the resident’s skin D) Perform the care while the resident is fully clothed Answer: B Explanation: Proper direction reduces the risk of introducing bacteria from the rectal area to the urinary tract. Question 16. For oral hygiene, the CNA should brush a denture: A) While it is still in the resident’s mouth B) After removing it, using a soft brush and non‑abrasive cleanser C) Only once a week to avoid damage D) With regular toothpaste and a hard‑bristled brush Answer: B Explanation: Dentures should be removed, brushed gently with a denture cleanser, and rinsed before reinsertion. Question 17. When shaving a resident, the CNA must: A) Use a new razor for each resident and apply a warm, moist towel before shaving B) Share the same razor to reduce waste
Explanation: Dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor are classic early signs of dehydration. Question 21. A resident is prescribed a “NPO after midnight” order. The CNA should: A) Offer water at any time to keep the resident hydrated B) Allow the resident to have small bites of food if hungry C) Ensure the resident receives no oral intake after the specified time D) Provide clear liquids only after 10 a.m. Answer: C Explanation: “NPO” (nil per os) means no oral intake; the CNA must enforce this restriction. Question 22. Which of the following is a characteristic of a low‑sodium diet? A) Unlimited use of salt shakers at the bedside B) Emphasis on fresh fruits, vegetables, and unsalted breads C) Preference for processed meats and canned soups D) Adding soy sauce to every meal for flavor Answer: B Explanation: Low‑sodium diets limit added salt and processed foods, focusing on fresh items. Question 23. When assisting a resident to sit up in a chair, the CNA should: A) Pull the resident quickly to avoid fatigue B) Use a gait belt and ensure the brakes on the wheelchair are locked C) Let the resident stand unaided to promote independence D) Push the resident from behind without a belt for speed Answer: B Explanation: A gait belt provides support, and locked brakes prevent the chair from moving unintentionally. Question 24. Proper body mechanics for a CNA transferring a resident involves:
A) Bending at the waist and keeping legs straight B) Keeping the back straight, bending at the hips and knees, and using the legs to lift C) Twisting the torso while lifting to reach the resident’s side D) Lifting with the arms only to protect the back Answer: B Explanation: Using hips and knees while keeping the back neutral reduces strain and injury risk. Question 25. The “Fowler’s” position is primarily used to: A) Promote spinal alignment during sleep B) Facilitate respiratory function and feeding C) Prevent pressure ulcers on the sacrum D) Allow for better wound drainage on the lower extremities Answer: B Explanation: Fowler’s (semi‑upright) position improves breathing and eases oral intake. Question 26. Which passive range‑of‑motion (ROM) exercise is appropriate for a resident’s shoulder? A) Lifting the arm above the head without assistance B) Gently moving the arm forward and backward while the resident relaxes C) Applying resistance while the resident pushes against the CNA’s hand D) Rotating the arm rapidly to increase joint lubrication Answer: B Explanation: Passive ROM involves the CNA moving the joint while the resident remains relaxed. Question 27. When ambulating a resident with a walker, the CNA should: A) Walk ahead of the resident to set the pace B) Stand behind the resident and hold the walker’s frame for support C) Push the walker from behind while the resident walks D) Let the resident walk alone to promote independence
Question 31. A resident becomes verbally aggressive during care. The CNA’s first de‑escalation step should be: A) Raise the voice to assert authority B) Immediately restrain the resident C) Use a calm tone, maintain eye contact, and give the resident space D) Leave the room without explanation Answer: C Explanation: A calm, non‑threatening approach helps reduce agitation and prevent escalation. Question 32. Which of the following is a resident’s right under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? A) The right to have all medical records posted publicly in the facility B) The right to have personal health information shared with anyone who asks C) The right to privacy and confidentiality of their health information D. The right to demand that staff disclose their medication list to visitors without consent Answer: C Explanation: HIPAA protects the confidentiality of personal health information. Question 33. When a CNA observes a resident with bruises on the forearm and a broken denture, the appropriate legal action is to: A) Document the findings and report to the supervising nurse and facility’s abuse hotline B) Ignore it because the resident may have fallen C) Confront the resident’s family directly D) Wait until the next shift change to mention it Answer: A Explanation: Suspected abuse must be documented and reported promptly according to facility policy. Question 34. Which task is outside the typical scope of practice for a CNA?
A) Measuring vital signs B) Administering oral medications prescribed by a physician C) Assisting with activities of daily living D) Documenting resident’s intake and output Answer: B Explanation: CNA scope does not include medication administration unless the state specifically permits it. Question 35. A CNA notices a resident’s skin is red and warm over the sacrum after two hours of lying supine. The best immediate action is to: A) Apply a heating pad to the area B) Reposition the resident to a lateral or Fowler’s position and document the finding C) Ignore it because pressure injuries develop slowly D) Call the physician immediately for a prescription of ointment Answer: B Explanation: Prompt repositioning relieves pressure and prevents progression; documentation follows. Question 36. Proper hand hygiene for the clinical skills evaluation requires: A) Rubbing hands together for at least 5 seconds with soap B) A 20‑second scrub using soap and water, covering all surfaces C) Only washing the fingertips before patient contact D) Using hand sanitizer only when gloves are not available Answer: B Explanation: The CDC recommends a 20‑second handwash covering all hand surfaces. Question 37. When making an occupied bed, the CNA should first: A) Remove all linens before entering the room B) Explain the procedure to the resident and ensure safety of equipment C) Pull the sheets off the mattress while the resident is still in it
Question 41. Which statement best reflects cultural sensitivity when providing care? A) Assuming all residents prefer the same meals B) Asking the resident about their cultural or spiritual practices and incorporating them when possible C) Ignoring religious holidays to maintain routine D. Providing care only in English to ensure clarity Answer: B Explanation: Respecting and inquiring about cultural preferences supports individualized, respectful care. Question 42. A resident refuses a bath. The CNA should: A) Force the bath to maintain hygiene standards B) Document the refusal and respect the resident’s right while offering alternatives later C. Call security to restrain the resident D. Ignore the resident’s wishes and proceed anyway Answer: B Explanation: Residents have the right to refuse care; documentation and offering future assistance respects autonomy. Question 43. End‑of‑life care for a resident includes: A) Withholding all food and water to hasten death B) Providing comfort measures, pain control, and emotional support to the resident and family C. Performing invasive procedures without consent D. Ignoring family wishes in favor of facility policy Answer: B Explanation: Palliative care focuses on comfort, symptom management, and support for both resident and family. Question 44. Which abbreviation stands for “as needed” in medication orders? A) PRN
B) PO
C) BID
D. QHS
Answer: A Explanation: PRN = “pro re nata,” meaning the medication is given as needed. Question 45. A CNA notices a resident’s room temperature is 68°F (20°C). The appropriate action is to: A) Ignore it because residents adapt B) Adjust the thermostat or provide a blanket and document the temperature concern C. Open the window for fresh air D. Turn off the heater to conserve energy Answer: B Explanation: Maintaining a comfortable environment is part of resident care; adjustments should be documented. Question 46. The most appropriate way to handle a resident’s aggressive verbal outburst about “the food being poisoned” is to: A) Argue and correct the resident’s belief B) Listen attentively, validate feelings, and assess for underlying causes (pain, hunger, confusion) C. Immediately call security to remove the resident D. Ignore the resident and continue with the care plan Answer: B Explanation: Validation and assessment help identify triggers and de‑escalate the situation. Question 47. When documenting a resident’s intake, the CNA should: A) Record only the total volume at the end of the shift B) Note the type of fluid, amount, time, and any refusals or difficulties C. Estimate the amount if the resident is unable to communicate D. Write “adequate” without specifics
Question 51. Which of the following is a sign of a possible urinary tract infection (UTI) in a resident? A) Clear, odorless urine B) Increased frequency of voiding with burning sensation C. Decreased heart rate D. Elevated blood glucose only Answer: B Explanation: Dysuria and increased frequency are classic UTI symptoms. Question 52. When a resident asks the CNA to “hold their hand” because they feel anxious, the appropriate response is to: A) Refuse, citing workload B) Gently hold the resident’s hand, providing reassurance, and document the interaction C. Ignore the request and continue with tasks D. Call a family member to provide emotional support instead Answer: B Explanation: Providing emotional support is part of holistic care and should be documented. Question 53. The best way to prevent cross‑contamination when moving from a resident with an infectious wound to another resident is to: A) Change gloves only B) Perform hand hygiene, change gloves, and use a new set of PPE before entering the second resident’s space C. Use the same gown to save time D. Rely on the resident’s own immune system Answer: B Explanation: Hand hygiene and new PPE break the chain of infection. Question 54. A resident’s family member asks for the resident’s medication list. The CNA should: A) Provide the list immediately because the family has a right to know B) Decline and refer the request to the nurse or authorized staff, ensuring HIPAA compliance
C. Write down the information from memory D. Give a verbal summary without documentation Answer: B Explanation: Only authorized personnel may release medication information; the CNA must follow protocol. Question 55. The most appropriate method for measuring a resident’s weight when they are non‑ambulatory is: A) Using a standard floor scale while the resident stands on a stool B) Using a wheelchair scale or a hoist with a built‑in scale C. Estimating based on clothing size D. Measuring only the resident’s upper body Answer: B Explanation: A wheelchair scale or hoist with a scale provides accurate weight without requiring the resident to stand. Question 56. When documenting a resident’s fall, the CNA must include: A) Only the time of the fall B) Detailed description of the event, location, injuries, witnesses, and actions taken C. A brief note stating “resident fell” D. The resident’s opinion about why they fell Answer: B Explanation: Comprehensive documentation is essential for legal and care planning purposes. Question 57. Which of the following is a contraindication for using a mechanical lift (Hoyer) on a resident? A) Resident has a weight of 250 lb (113 kg) exceeding the lift’s capacity B. Resident is able to stand with assistance C. Resident has a pressure ulcer on the sacrum D. Resident is in a wheelchair with locked brakes
Question 61. When assisting a resident with a nasogastric (NG) tube, the CNA should: A) Flush the tube with water before and after feeding as ordered B. Pull the tube out to clean it daily C. Change the tube’s position every hour D. Feed the resident without checking tube placement Answer: A Explanation: Flushing maintains patency and prevents clogging; tube removal or repositioning must be done by a nurse. Question 62. The “four rights” of delegation that a CNA must understand include: A) Right time, right place, right person, right equipment B. Right task, right circumstances, right person, right direction/communication C. Right medication, right dose, right route, right patient D. Right shift, right supervisor, right documentation, right report Answer: B Explanation: Delegation requires appropriate task, circumstances, person, and clear communication. Question 63. Which of the following is an example of elder abuse that must be reported? A. A resident forgetting to take medication B. Unexplained bruises and a denture that is broken C. A resident’s preference for a different TV channel D. A resident’s occasional mood swings Answer: B Explanation: Physical signs like bruises and broken denture may indicate abuse and require reporting. Question 64. The correct order for removing PPE after caring for a resident with a contagious infection is: A. Gloves → Gown → Eye protection → Mask
B. Mask → Eye protection → Gown → Gloves C. Gloves → Eye protection → Gown → Mask D. Gown → Gloves → Mask → Eye protection Answer: A Explanation: Removing gloves first prevents contaminating the inner surfaces of other PPE. Question 65. A resident with a feeding tube is at risk for aspiration. Which nursing action helps minimize this risk? A. Position the resident in a semi‑Fowler’s position during and after feeds B. Give the feed as fast as possible C. Keep the head of the bed flat during feeding D. Administer feed through a syringe without checking tube placement Answer: A Explanation: Semi‑Fowler’s positioning promotes safe swallowing and reduces aspiration risk. Question 66. When a resident’s blood glucose reading is 45 mg/dL, the CNA should: A. Give the resident a sugary snack and recheck glucose in 15 minutes, then notify the nurse B. Wait for the resident to feel hungry before acting C. Administer insulin as ordered D. Ignore the value because the resident appears fine Answer: A Explanation: Low glucose requires immediate carbohydrate intake and notification of the nurse. Question 67. The purpose of a “nighttime rounding” protocol is to: A. Reduce staff workload during the day B. Decrease falls, call lights, and improve resident satisfaction during night hours C. Increase medication administration frequency D. Allow residents to sleep without any interruptions Answer: B
