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Material Type: Assignment; Class: Probability with Engrg Applic; Subject: Electrical and Computer Engr; University: University of Illinois - Urbana-Champaign; Term: Unknown 1989;
Typology: Assignments
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of Illinois Page 1 of 3 Fall 2001
1.(a) The number of weeks that your investment doubles in value is a binomial random variable Y with parameters (5,1/2). Since the investment halves in value during the remaining 5– Y weeks, and each halving cancels one doubling, we have that X = 32•2^2 Y –5^. The possible values of X are 1, 4, 16, 64, 256, and 1024, corresponding to Y = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively. (b) P{ X = 1} = P{ Y = 0} = 1/32. P{ X = 4} = P{ Y = 1} = 5/32. P{ X = 16} = P{ Y = 2} = 10/32. P{ X = 64} = P{ Y = 3} = 10/32. P{ X = 256} = P{ Y = 4} = 5/32. P{ X = 1024} = P{ Y = 5} = 1/32. (c) E[ X ] = 1•(1/32) + 4•(5/32) + 16•(10/32) + 64•(10/32) + 256•(5/32) + 1024•(1/32) = 97.65625. The TV commercial understates the performance — undoubtedly a first! (d) P{ X < 32} = P{ X = 1} + P{ X = 4} + P{ X = 16} = 1/2. (e) There is a 50% chance of losing money on this investment. Most people do not mind making investments if the amount at risk is small but the payoff from a win is enormous, e.g. lottery tickets are a losing bet for most buyers, but people don’t mind an almost sure loss of a dollar because all they see is the huge payoff. Matters are considerably different when the amounts at risk are large, and most people tend to choose more conservatively. This explains why the local 7-11 sells lottery tickets but Neiman-Marcus does not. 2. P{ X is even} = P{ X = 0} + P{ X = 2} + … + P{ X = M} where M = N if N is even and M = N – 1 if N is
2 q
N–2p (^2) + … +
M q
N–MpM (^). Note that the last term is pN (^) if N
1 q
N–1p +
2 q
N–2p (^2) + … +
N–1 qp
N–1 (^) + pN (^) while
1 q
N–1p +
2 q
N–2p (^2) – …+ (–1)N–
N–1 qp
N–1 (^) + (–1)NpN.
We add these equations together and note alternate terms cancel.. Also if N is odd, the last terms cancel, while if N is even, the next–to–last terms cancel. In either case, we see that the sum is just 2P{ X is even}, i.e. P{ X is even} = [(q+p)N+(q – p)N]/2 = [1+(1 – 2p)N]/2. Exercise: when is P{ X is even} < 1/2?
n (0.8)
n(0.2)N–K–n, for n = 0, 1, 2, … , N–K.
(b) For fixed N and n, the answer to part (a) is a function of K, say f(K). Then,
f(K) f(K–1)
n (0.8)
n(0.2)N–K–n
n (0.8)
n(0.2)N–(K–1)–n
(N–K)(N–K–1)…(N–K–n+1) (N–(K–1))(N–(K–1)–1)…(N–(K–1)–n+1)0.
≥ 1 if and only
if
N–K–n+ N–K+
≥ 0.2, that is, K ≤ N – 1.25n + 1. Since K is an integer, the maximum-likelihood estimate
can be expressed as K =^ N – 1.25n + 1. For N = 100 and n = 8, N – 1.25n + 1 = 91 is an integer. Hence, f(91)/f(90) = 1 and either 90 or 91 can be taken to be the maximum-likelihood estimate of K. The formula we derived gives 91 as the estimate but it is perfectly legitimate to use 90 instead.
(c) The examiner’s estimate K is C –~ 0.25n = N – n – 0.25n which has value 90 if N = 100 and n = 8
while K is 91. Thus, the examiner’s estimate is smaller than the answer obtained in part (b), but still^ perfectly defensible as a maximum-likelihood estimate as described in part (b) (she is just a tough grader!). In fact, K = ~ K^ except when 0.25n happens to be an integer (because N – n – 0.25n = N – 1.25n + 1 except when 0.25n is an integer) and in this special case, the examiner is opting for the lower value. For the case N = 100 and n = 10, we get K =^ 100 – 12.5 + 1 = 88.5 = 88 while K is C –~ 0.25n = 90 – 2.5 = 90 – 2 = 88 is the same. The unlucky student who blew all 10 guesses suffers the further indignity of having a score of 88 on the exam even though the answers to 90 questions were known (and recorded correctly on the answer sheet!) (d) If N = 100 and K = 90, W is a binomial random variable with parameters (10,0.8) and hence P{ W = n} is maximized at n = 0.8×(10+1) = 8. If this maximum-probability event actually occurs, then as discussed in parts (b) and (c), K = 90 which correctly estimates K, while ~ K = 91 slightly overestimates K.^ (e) If W = 4, the guessing penalty reduces the score by just 1 — the student gets a 95 while knowing only 90 answers whereas the unlucky one who blew all 10 guesses got only an 88 while knowing 90 answers! This is the origin of the saying “Some people have all the luck!” (f) It is easily verified that if C equals 100, 99, 98, 97, 96, 95, 94, 93, 92, 91, and 90,
then the examiner’s estimate K is~ 100, 99, 98, 97, 95, 94, 93, 92, 90, 89, and 88. The probability of underestimating K is P{ W = 9} + P{ W = 10} = 0.37580964… while the probability of correctly estimating K is P{ W = 8} = 0.30198989… The probability of overestimating K can be easily found as
of Illinois Page 2 of 3 Fall 2001
1 – P{correctly estimating} – P{underestimating} = 0.32220047…. It can also be computed directly (and with a lot more work!) as P{ W ≤ 7} = P{ W = 0} + P{ W = 1} + … + P{ W = 7} = 0.32220047… More interestingly, write the examiner’s estimate as K = N –~ W – 0.25 W and think of it as a random variable. The average value of K, i.e. E[ ~ K], is 90.3230648… which is pretty good estimation!~ It is interesting to note that N – W – 0.25 W (without the floor function) has average value precisely K, so the examiner is contributing to grade inflation while being a tough grader at the same time!
4.(a) X takes on values –6, 6, 12, 18. (b) If $6 is bet on i, then you lose it if all three dice show one of the 5 non-i numbers.
Hence P{ X = –6} = 5^3 /6^3 =
. On the other hand, you win $6 if one of the three dice shows i and the
other two have non-i numbers. Hence, P{ X = 6} = 3•(1•5^2 )/6^3 =
. By a similar argument, P{ X = 12}
is 3•(1^2 •5)/6^3 =
, and P{ X = 18) = 1^3 /6^3 =
. Sanity check: 125 + 75 + 15 + 1 = 216, so we have
not left anything out.
i.e. a loss of roughly 47¢ per game.
(d) The chance of the three dice showing three different numbers is
. In this case, you come out even
since you win $3 on the three numbers showing, but lose $3 on the three no-shows. The chance that the
three dice show the same number is 6•
in which case you win $3 on the winning number but lose
$5 on the 5 no-shows for a net loss of $2. The probability that exactly two numbers are identical is thus 15 36
in which case, you win $2 on the pair and $1 on the singleton, but lose $4 on the other no-shows
for a net loss of –1. Thus, Y is a random variable taking on values 0, –1, –2, with probabilities as found above. (Remind me once again why you are bothering to play this game at all?), and its expected value is
E[ Y ] =
just as before. Splitting your bet six ways has no effect on your losses!
Exercise: Would it be better to bet on 2 or 3 or 4 or 5 numbers (in equal shares) instead?
5 different ways of rank-ordering 5 men and 5 women, and all these are equally likely as stated in the problem. The random variable X , the ranking of the highest-ranked woman, obviously can take on values 1,2,3,4,5,6 only. Now, if X = k, the other 4 women can be in placed in the lower 10–k
10–k 4 different ways. (Sanity check: the other 5 – (k–1) = 6–k men can be placed in the lower
10–k
10–k
n
n n–i .)
Hence, for 1 ≤ k ≤ 6, P{ X = k} =
10–k 4
(10–k)•(10–k–1)•(10–k–2)•(10–k–3) 10•9•8•7•
. The numerical values
are respectively
, and
for k = 1,2,3,4,5,6. Sanity check: The numbers add to 1.
6.(a) If X ≥ 50, he sells all the papers. This event occurs with probability P{ X ≥ 50} ≈ 0. (b) If he cannot sell any papers, he loses $0.1×50 = $5. If he sells all of them, he makes $0.25×50 = $12.50. If the demand X is for 50 papers or less, the newsboy sells X papers and recycles 50– X papers. Thus, his profit (in cents) is 25 X – 10(50– X ) = 35 X – 500. Otherwise, X > 50, and his profit is 1250 regardless of
(c) Z takes on values –500, –465, –430, … 1215, 1250, 1250, … 1250 as X takes on values 0, 1, 2, … 49, 50, 51, … 100. Thus, P{ Z = –500} = P{ X = 0}, etc. and we can thus evaluate E[ Z ] via LOTUS as E[ Z ] = (–500)P{ X = 0} + (–465)P{ X = 1} + … + 1215P{ X = 49} + 1250P{ X = 50} + 1250P{ X = 51} +