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NCSF CSC FINAL PRACTICE EXAM
Which is the key component to quickness? A. Maximum speed B. Acceleration rate C. Core strength D. Directional change - Answers-B. Acceleration rate Which exercise maintains the longest kinetic chain? A. Pull up B. Leg press C. Overhead squat D. Dumbbell chest press - Answers-C. Overhead squat What is the greatest limiting factor to racking the weight during cleans? A. Trunk strength B. Upper body mobility C. Spinal extension ROM D. Lower body strength - Answers-B. Upper body mobility Why does aerobic fitness predict anaerobic repeat sprint ability in the yo-yo beep test? A. Slow twitch fibers spare glycogen B. The heart can attain higher rates C. Aerobic metabolism aids in buffering anaerobic byproducts D. Vascular compliance enhances blood delivery - Answers-C. Aerobic metabolism aids in buffering anaerobic byproducts What determines the work recovery ratios for an athlete's training program? A. The strength of the athlete B. The size of the field C. The number of athletes being trained D. The metabolic demands of the sport - Answers-D. The metabolic demands of the sport Which of the following exercises may require modification for taller athletes? A. Hang clean B. Deadlift C. Bench press D. Weighted step ups - Answers-B. Deadlift
What is the recommended strength ratio between shoulder flexors and extensors? A. 1: B. 1: C. 3: D. 2:3 - Answers-D. 2: What is the local stabilizer of the shoulder? A. Pec minor B. Supraspinatus C. Serratus anterior D. Anterior deltoid - Answers-B. Supraspinatus What type of training is most relevant to increasing swing speed in sports? A. Forearm Strength B. Shoulder Flexibility C. Hip Power D. Trunk Strength balance - Answers-C. Hip Power Which test is used to measure anaerobic capacity? A. 60 yd shuttle B. 400 meter C. Yo-Yo IR D. 225 lb multi-rep bench test - Answers-B. 400 meter What is tight when an athlete has limitations reaching overhead in the frontal or sagittal plane? A. Rotator cuff B. Latissimus dorsi C. Rhomboids D. Anterior deltoid - Answers-B. Latissimus dorsi What is the estimated repetition range when testing using 80% of 1RM? A. 1- 3 B. 4- 6 C. 7- 9 D. 10- 12 - Answers-C. 7- 9 Why are multi-rep tests used for maximal strength prediction over 1RM assessments? A. To reduce risk for injury
B. Latissimus dorsi C. Pectoralis major D. Transverse abdominis - Answers-B. Latissimus dorsi Which muscle is not part of the cores inner unit? A. Transverse abdominis B. Rectus abdominis C. Pelvic floor D. Diaphragm - Answers-B. Rectus abdominis What can be observed in an individual with lower cross syndrome? A. Excessive hip flexion B. Excessive hip adduction C. Laterally rotated hip D. Posterior pelvic tilt - Answers-A. Excessive hip flexion Upper cross syndrome would prevent the safe use of what lift? A. Bent over rows B. Tricep push downs C. Hang Snatch D. Rear delt flys - Answers-C. Hang Snatch What is recommended for an athlete who presents a forward chin during a postural assessment? A. Stretch the cervical extensors B. Strengthen the trapezius and rhomboids C. Strengthen the cervical flexors D. Stretch the erector spinae - Answers-B. Strengthen the trapezius and rhomboids What is the observable issue with this athlete's plank? A. The calves are tight B. The hip flexors are used as stabilizers C. The lats are tight D. The pectorals are overactive - Answers-B. The hip flexors are used as stabilizers Which exercise should be avoided for an athlete with shoulder impingement syndrome? A. Back squats B. Kettlebell swings C. Clean pulls D. One arm row - Answers-B. Kettlebell swings
All the following exercises would be negatively affected by an athlete with tight hip flexors, except? A. Power clean B. Box jump C. Back squat D. Leg press - Answers-D. Leg press What muscle is a common cause of IT band syndrome when inflexible? A. Glute maximus B. Quadratus lumborum C. Obliques D. Vastus lateralis - Answers-B. Quadratus lumborum Which is true of the lunge exercise performed with a single anchor? A. The prime mover for the forward lunge is the hamstring B. The prime mover of the reverse lunge is the glutes the hamstring C. The prime mover of the lateral lunge is the adductors D. Forward and reverse lunges activate the same muscles equally - Answers-B. The prime mover of the reverse lunge is the glutes the hamstring When would the unilateral RDL be programmed over the normal RDL? A. To allow for more weight directed on the hamstring B. To increase the quadricep activity C. To increase the lengthening of the prime mover D. To reduce the range limitation of the gastrocnemius - Answers-C. To increase the lengthening of the prime mover All are common causes of rounding the back during deadlifts, except? A. Too much weight B. Weak core C. Tight hamstrings D. Tight hip flexors - Answers-D. Tight hip flexors The posterior (oblique) sling system is composed of all the following,except? A. Biceps femoris
D. All the above - Answers-B. Trunk lateral flexors What limits the movement range of scapular retraction during rowing? A. Flexed spine B. Large biceps C. Neutral grip D. All the above - Answers-A. Flexed spine What is the problem with incomplete foot placement during step-ups? A. It decreases quad activity B. It causes knee translation C. It reduces step speed D. All the above - Answers-B. It causes knee translation Which rotator cuff muscle tends to be too weak affecting strength balance function? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Subscapularis D. Serratus anterior - Answers-B. Infraspinatus Why are Olympic movements trained at less than 6 repetitions per set? A. They use the phosphagen system for energy B. It impedes activation patterns C. All the fast twitch fibers have fatigued D. All the above - Answers-A. They use the phosphagen system for energy Why does it take more recovery from 4RM than 8RM between repeat sets? A. Stabilizers require more time to recover than prime movers B. Phosphagen requires rephosphorylation C. Sugar metabolism only employs eleven enzymes to form ATP D. All the above - Answers-B. Phosphagen requires rephosphorylation Maximal conditioning exercises performed for 60-90 seconds are used to increase______? A. VO2max B. Phosphagen storage C. Anaerobic capacity D. Aerobic power - Answers-C. Anaerobic capacity
All are adaptations to aerobic conditioning, except? A. Increased mitochondrial density B. Increased Capillary density C. Increased Type I muscle fiber density D. Increased stroke volume - Answers-C. Increased Type I muscle fiber density What causes volitional failure during an anaerobic power step test lasting 60 seconds? A. Central fatigue B. Peripheral fatigue C. Acute peripheral fatigue D. Neurological inhibition - Answers-C. Acute peripheral fatigue Why are slow twitch fibers recruited before fast twitch fibers? A. The smaller the fiber the faster the excitation B. They function in pre- anticipation to stabilize force C. They have the lowest activation threshold D. All the above - Answers-D. All the above What is the highest recommended load for plyometric exercises? A. 12% B. 15% C. 17% D. 20% - Answers-A. 12% When is a depth jump a plyometric exercise? A. When the ground contact time is <0.3 seconds B. When the box is over 30 inches C. When the rebound height is higher than the box height D. All the above - Answers-A. When the ground contact time is <0.3 seconds What adaptation emphasis should be programmed first in an exercise session? A. Aerobic conditioning B. Strength C. Anaerobic endurance D. Power - Answers-D. Power
Hypertrophy programs are designed to promote the release of which anabolic hormone? A. Hgh B. Testosterone C. IGF- 1 D. All the above - Answers-C. IGF- 1 What is the role of growth hormone in exercise metabolism? A. Glucose management B. Suppresses lipolysis C. Inhibits IGF- 1 D. All the above - Answers-A. Glucose management All are reasons females' performance scores are lower than males, except: A. Lower testosterone levels B. Higher body fat relative to weight C. Smaller heart size D. Smaller stature - Answers-D. Smaller stature What rest intervals are used to promote muscle mass when training time is a key limitation? A. <30 seconds B. 30-60 seconds C. 60-90 seconds D. 90-120 seconds - Answers-B. 30-60 seconds What causes the loss of the protein sparing mechanism? A. The release of epinephrine B. Low pH level in the blood C. Low liver glycogen D. All the above - Answers-C. Low liver glycogen Which of the following promote muscle damage from heavy resistance exercise, except? A. Eccentric contractions B. Inadequate glycogen C. Dehydration D. All of the above - Answers-D. All of the above
How do ballistic exercises increase force production? A. Increase muscle mass B. Decrease slow twitch fiber recruitment C. Increase firing rate and synchronicity D. All the above - Answers-C. Increase firing rate and synchronicity How many calories are in 10 grams of fat? A. 40 B. 70 C. 90 D. 120 - Answers-C. 90 Which of the following inhibits lipid oxidation? A. High intensity training B. Insulin C. Alcohol D. All the above - Answers-D. All the above Metabolic water lost from muscle and liver causes acute weight loss in which type of diet? A. Paleo B. Carb-restricted C. Intermittent fasting D. High protein diets - Answers-B. Carb-restricted What type of nutrient should be consumed in the highest quantity immediately post exercise? A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats D. Creatine - Answers-A. Carbohydrates Which carbohydrate loading method is most common among endurance athletes? A. Classical method B. Tapering method C. Single-bout method D. All are equal - Answers-B. Tapering method What is the protein-sparing mechanism?
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin D - Answers-D. Vitamin D Female athletes have a heightened risk for anemia due to inadequate_____. A. Phosphorus B. Zinc C. Vitamin A D. Iron - Answers-D. Iron What is the term that describes the lowest body fat level for a human to maintain health and hormonal balance? A. Terminal fat range B. Minimum lipid balance C. Essential body fat D. Regional fat limits - Answers-C. Essential body fat All of the following are part of the female triad, except? A. Loss of menstruation B. Anemia C. Osteoporosis D. Disordered eating - Answers-B. Anemia What milk protein has the highest rate of digestibility making it ideal for post- exercise consumption? A. Whey B. Casein C. Albumen D. Cytochrome - Answers-A. Whey If a supplement is ergolytic, it means it ____. A. Improves overall performance B. Decreases performance C. Is used for some part of performance enhancement D. It is illegal in sports - Answers-B. Decreases performance Which supplement taken before a long distance race has demonstrated improved performance?
A. Glutamine B. HMB C. Creatine D. Caffeine - Answers-D. Caffeine What supplement is associated with added strength due to enhanced muscle storage? A. Caffeine B. HMB C. Creatine monohydrate D. Medium-chain triglycerides - Answers-C. Creatine monohydrate Which mineral is absorbed at the highest rates when consumed with vitamin C? A. Zinc B. Iron C. Cooper D. Selenium - Answers-B. Iron What type of flexibility activities can be done before exercise without impacting force production? A. Active-assisted stretching B. PNF stretching C. Dynamic flexibility D. Active isolation stretching - Answers-C. Dynamic flexibility What is the minimum acclimation period for exercise in the heat? A. 1day B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7 days - Answers-D. 7 days Why is it important to increase VO2 before performing anaerobic sprint activities? A. It allows for longer workouts B. It promotes maximal sprint speed C. It allows for improved buffering D. All the above - Answers-C. It allows for improved buffering What is the purpose of neuromuscular activation during workout preparation?
A. Weakness B. Quadricep dominance C. Too much hip extension D. All the above - Answers-C. Too much hip extension Where is the starting position of the bar during hang cleans? A. Center to the shins B. Just below the knees C. Just above the knees D. At the hip - Answers-C. Just above the knees What is the correct bar location during the overhead squat? A. Just behind the shoulder B. Just in front of the shoulders C. Over the shoulders D. Everyone is different - Answers-C. Over the shoulders Any receive caught above 90 degrees of knee flexion is termed _______. A. High position B. Power position C. Superior position D. All are synonymous - Answers-B. Power position When the pointer and middle fingers overlap the thumb on the bar during Olympic pulls it is termed a _______. A. Overlap grip B. Double grip C. Hook grip D. Clasp grip - Answers-C. Hook grip Which phase of Olympic jerks places the back at the most risk? A. Start phase B. The drop phase C. The receive phase D. The dip phase - Answers-C. The receive phase What is the difference between a push press and a push jerk? A. The amount of weight used B. How it is combined with cleans
C. The bar movement range D. All the above - Answers-C. The bar movement range A complex set conditioning exercise is used for increasing _______? A. Motor unit learning B. Enhancing muscle pliability C. Post activation potentiation D. Muscle fiber acidosis - Answers-C. Post activation potentiation What work:recovery ratio would be used for metabolic conditioning work with a speed focus? A. 1: B. 1:2- 6 C. 1:9- 12 D. 1:20- 30 - Answers-B. 1:2- 6 When is maximal speed employed in a periodized model? A. Initial phase B. Middle phase C. Final phase D. It should be included in all phases of training - Answers-C. Final phase When are repeat, finite skills used in change of direction conditioning workouts? A. During the warm up B. During the beginning of the workout C. At the end of the workout D. Throughout the entire workout - Answers-B. During the beginning of the workout What is drag training? A. Stationary resistance pulls using long ropes B. Swimming in place while anchored C. Pushing or pulling resistance during locomotion D. All the above - Answers-C. Pushing or pulling resistance during locomotion Which is used specifically for hip extension power? A. Push jerks B. Altitude drops C. Stair bounds
A. Speed B. Power C. Strength D. Injury prevention - Answers-D. Injury prevention What is the purpose of asymmetrical exercises? A. Promote ROM B. Increase loading C. Train the sling systems D. Improves body stability - Answers-D. Improves body stability Which is an example of a hypertrophy superset? A. Bench press and seated rows B. Leg press and lunges C. Deadlift and military press D. Leg curl and hanging leg raises - Answers-B. Leg press and lunges What is the key characteristic of a compound set? A. The duration of time between exercises B. The total number of joints involved C. Paired actions based on the opportune position of the load D. Two exercises fused together to become one - Answers-C. Paired actions based on the opportune position of the load Which of the following is a combination exercise? A. Lunge with MB rotation B. Bicep curl to Arnold press C. Snatch from the floor D. Supine pullover - Answers-A. Lunge with MB rotation Which is a superset paired for maximal strength training? A. Barbell curls and hammer curls B. Back squat and front squat C. RDL and leg curl D. Bench press and lat pulldown - Answers-D. Bench press and lat pulldown Why is it recommended not to increase loads above 10% body weight during metabolic circuits? A. Speed of movement becomes slowed
B. Metabolic load becomes too high C. Rest intervals become too long D. All the above - Answers-D. All the above Which of the following is a characteristic of the anaerobic endurance phase of periodization? A. Increased bilateral lifts B. Increased emphasis on Olympic lift loads C. Decreased rest intervals D. All the above - Answers-C. Decreased rest intervals The intensity range of 70-85% 1RM is most common to what phase? A. Preparation B. Hypertrophy C. Strength D. Power - Answers-B. Hypertrophy Contrast sets are commonly used in what phase? A. Preparation B. Anaerobic endurance C. Hypertrophy D. Strength - Answers-D. Strength What phase of training uses unilateral combination exercises based on their adaptation characteristics alignment with the phase? A. Preparation B. Hypertrophy C. Strength D. Sport Power - Answers-A. Preparation During what phase of training do compound exercises use 3- 5RM loads? A. Preparation B. Anaerobic endurance C. Hypertrophy D. Strength - Answers-D. Strength Which of the following is a rationale to pull from the blocks instead of the floor? A. To spare the lower back B. To accommodate specific
