Download Virginia VA Elevator Installation Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Question 1. Which Virginia Administrative Code (VAC) section specifically governs the licensing of Certified Elevator Mechanics? A) 18‑ 50 ‑ 100 B) 18‑ 50 ‑ 210 C) 18‑ 50 ‑ 150 D) 18‑ 50 ‑ 300 Answer: B Explanation: VAC 18‑ 50 ‑ 210 outlines the requirements, examinations, and renewal procedures for Certified Elevator Mechanics in Virginia. Question 2. The most recent edition of the ASME A17.1/CSA B44 safety code adopted by Virginia requires which of the following minimum clearances between the car top and the overhead sheave? A) 12 inches B) 24 inches C) 30 inches D) 48 inches Answer: C Explanation: The current edition specifies a minimum of 30 inches to allow safe installation and maintenance of the hoisting mechanism. Question 3. Under the National Electrical Code (NEC), which article governs the grounding of elevator electrical systems? A) Article 250 B) Article 430 C) Article 300 D) Article 110
Answer: A Explanation: NEC Article 250 covers grounding and bonding requirements, including those for elevators. Question 4. In an elevator traction system, the traction ratio is defined as the ratio of: A) Motor horsepower to car weight B) Counterweight weight to car weight C) Sheave diameter to rope diameter D) Motor speed to car speed Answer: B Explanation: Traction ratio = Counterweight weight ÷ Car weight; it determines the balance of the system. Question 5. Which NFPA code addresses fire alarm and signaling systems that must integrate with elevator fire service operation? A) NFPA 13 B) NFPA 72 C) NFPA 101 D) NFPA 70 Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 72 is the National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code, detailing elevator fire service interface requirements. Question 6. The ADA requires that elevator car dimensions for new construction must provide a clear floor space of at least: A) 30 in × 48 in
Question 9. When selecting conduit size for a 400 A elevator service, which NEC factor is most critical? A) Conductor ampacity B) Conduit color C) Number of bends D) Ambient temperature only Answer: A Explanation: Conductor ampacity determines the required conduit size to safely carry the load current. Question 10. In a hydraulic elevator, the principle that the pressure applied to a fluid is transmitted equally in all directions is known as: A) Bernoulli’s principle B) Pascal’s law C) Archimedes’ principle D) Hooke’s law Answer: B Explanation: Pascal’s law describes pressure transmission in incompressible fluids, fundamental to hydraulic elevators. Question 11. Which PLC instruction is typically used to debounce a door‑open limit switch signal? A) TON (Timer On‑Delay) B) CTU (Count Up) C) MOV (Move) D) GOTO Answer: A
Explanation: A timer on‑delay can filter out spurious contacts, effectively debouncing the switch. Question 12. The NEC requires that conductors for elevator traction machines be protected by a dedicated circuit breaker of what minimum rating? A) 125 % of full‑load current B) 150 % of full‑load current C) 175 % of full‑load current D) 200 % of full‑load current Answer: A Explanation: NEC 430.32 mandates a breaker sized at least 125 % of the motor’s full‑load current. Question 13. According to ASME A17.1, the maximum permissible speed for a passenger elevator serving a building of 6 stories or less is: A) 100 fpm B) 150 fpm C) 200 fpm D) 250 fpm Answer: B Explanation: The code limits speed to 150 feet per minute for low‑rise passenger elevators. Question 14. Which document provides the required information for the installation of elevator pit drainage systems in Virginia? A) IBC Chapter 7 B) Virginia Building Code – Chapter 15 C) ASME A17.1 Appendix M
B) Activate the emergency alarm C) Control door closing sequence D) Monitor counterweight position Answer: A Explanation: Over‑travel switches detect when the car moves beyond its intended travel limits and stop the motor. Question 18. Which of the following is NOT a required component of the elevator fire service operation (Phase II) test? A) Car recall to the fire service floor B) Activation of the fire service recall button in the lobby C) Automatic opening of all car doors on fire service floor D) Continuous operation of the fire alarm panel Answer: D Explanation: Phase II focuses on elevator functions; the fire alarm panel’s continuous operation is not part of the test. Question 19. The NEC permits the use of a single‑pole circuit breaker for which type of elevator control circuit? A) Main power feeder B) Car‑operating circuit (COC) C) Emergency power supply D) None; a double‑pole is required for all 3‑phase circuits Answer: D Explanation: Elevator power circuits are three‑phase; NEC requires a double‑pole (or three‑pole) breaker.
Question 20. When performing a continuity test on a door‑operator motor winding, the expected reading on a digital multimeter should be: A) Open circuit (∞ Ω) B) Zero ohms C) Within the manufacturer’s specified resistance range D) Exactly 120 Ω Answer: C Explanation: The winding resistance must fall within the spec range; zero or infinite indicates a fault. Question 21. According to the International Building Code (IBC), the minimum headroom clearance for an elevator hoistway is: A) 6 ft 6 in B) 7 ft C) 8 ft D) 9 ft Answer: B Explanation: IBC requires a minimum of 7 feet headroom in hoistways for safe maintenance access. Question 22. Which type of sensor is commonly used to detect car over‑speed in modern elevators? A) Photoelectric sensor B) Magnetic reed switch C) Tachometer (rotational speed sensor) D) Proximity inductive sensor
D) 100% above normal operating pressure Answer: B Explanation: Relief valves protect the system by opening at roughly 25 % above the normal operating pressure. Question 26. Which of the following documents defines the minimum requirements for elevator accessibility for persons with reduced mobility (PRM) in Virginia? A) VA Code of Regulations § 18‑ 50 ‑ 220 B) ADA Standards for Accessible Design C) ASME A18. D) NFPA 101 Life Safety Code Answer: B Explanation: The ADA Standards set the baseline accessibility requirements for PRM equipment. Question 27. The correct method to lock out a three‑phase motor during maintenance is to: A) Turn off the main breaker only B) Remove the motor’s nameplate C) Place a lockout hasp on each of the three disconnect handles D) Tag the motor with a warning label Answer: C Explanation: LOTO requires physical locking of each disconnecting means to ensure isolation. Question 28. Which NEC article governs the installation of raceways in elevator hoistways? A) Article 300 B) Article 340
C) Article 380 D) Article 410 Answer: A Explanation: NEC Article 300 covers general requirements for wiring methods, including raceways. Question 29. In a traction elevator, the purpose of the “counterweight compensation” adjustment is to: A) Balance the car weight for varying passenger loads B) Reduce motor torque demand at start‑up C) Adjust the speed governor set point D) Align the sheave with the rope groove Answer: A Explanation: Compensation ensures the counterweight offsets the car weight plus a fraction of the rated load. Question 30. Which testing instrument is essential for verifying the integrity of a newly installed elevator grounding system? A) Infrared thermometer B) Clamp‑on ammeter C) Earth resistance tester (megger) D) Voltage detector pen Answer: C Explanation: An earth resistance tester measures ground resistance to confirm compliance. Question 31. The maximum allowable car travel distance between the top landing and the top of the hoistway in a 5‑story building is:
Question 34. In a machine‑room‑less elevator, the “top‑of‑car” sensor is used to: A) Detect car position for floor alignment B) Monitor the speed of the counterweight C) Activate the emergency brake at the top landing D) Measure rope tension Answer: A Explanation: The top‑of‑car sensor provides precise car position data for accurate leveling. Question 35. Which of the following is NOT a permitted method for lubricating elevator guide rails? A) Grease lubrication B) Oil spray lubrication C) Dry film (PTFE) coating D) Water‑based lubrication Answer: D Explanation: Water‑based lubricants can cause corrosion and are not approved for guide rails. Question 36. The “speed governor” in a traction elevator is calibrated to activate the safety brake at what percentage of the rated speed? A) 115 % B) 125 % C) 150 % D) 200 % Answer: B Explanation: Governors are set to engage at 125 % of the rated speed to protect against overspeed.
Question 37. According to NFPA 101, elevators used for emergency evacuation must be equipped with: A) Voice communication system only B) Firefighter’s operation mode and emergency power supply C) Automatic stair‑climbing capability D) Solar‑powered backup battery Answer: B Explanation: NFPA 101 requires fire service operation and an emergency power source for evacuation elevators. Question 38. Which type of brake is required on a traction elevator to meet the “hold‑in‑position” requirement when power is lost? A) Dynamic brake B) Mechanical spring‑applied brake C) Hydraulic brake D) Electromagnetic brake Answer: B Explanation: Spring‑applied brakes hold the car in place without power, satisfying hold‑in‑position standards. Question 39. In an elevator control panel, the “car‑call” button illumination is typically supplied by: A) 120 V AC line voltage B) 24 V DC low‑voltage supply C) 480 V three‑phase supply D) 12 V DC battery
D) 15 % of rated load Answer: C Explanation: A 10 % compensation factor balances the car for varying loads while maintaining safe operation. Question 43. Which of the following is a required feature of a “limited‑use/limited‑access” (LULA) elevator according to ASME A18.1? A) Capacity of at least 2,500 lb B) Travel speed not exceeding 100 fpm C) Door width of at least 48 inches D) Automatic fire‑service recall Answer: B Explanation: LULA elevators are limited to a maximum speed of 100 fpm to match their reduced usage. Question 44. When performing a “full‑load” test, the load applied to the car must be at least: A) 50 % of the rated capacity B) 75 % of the rated capacity C) 100 % of the rated capacity D) 125 % of the rated capacity Answer: C Explanation: Full‑load testing requires the elevator to carry its rated capacity to verify performance. Question 45. The OSHA regulation that specifically addresses confined‑space entry for elevator pit work is: A) 29 CFR 1910.
B) 29 CFR 1926.
C) 29 CFR 1910.
D) 29 CFR 1926.
Answer: A Explanation: OSHA 1910.146 defines confined‑space entry procedures, applicable to elevator pits. Question 46. In an elevator’s emergency power system, the battery bank must be capable of providing backup for a minimum of: A) 30 seconds B) 60 seconds C) 90 seconds D) 120 seconds Answer: B Explanation: NEC 620.33 requires at least 60 seconds of backup power for elevator operation. Question 47. Which of the following is the correct method for testing a door‑operator’s “hold‑open” function? A) Measure voltage at the door‑operator while the car is stationary B) Activate the “hold‑open” button and verify the door remains open for the preset time C) Disconnect the door‑operator and observe car movement D) Use a multimeter to check resistance across the hold‑open contacts Answer: B Explanation: The hold‑open function is verified by activating the button and confirming the door stays open as programmed.
Explanation: FMC may be used if it is listed for the purpose and protected from damage per NEC
Question 51. In a traction elevator, the “sheave” is typically made of which material to reduce wear? A) Cast iron B) Stainless steel C) Aluminum alloy D) Carbon steel with a chrome‑plated surface Answer: D Explanation: Chrome‑plated carbon steel sheaves provide durability and low friction. Question 52. The term “regenerative drive” refers to a system that: A) Uses hydraulic fluid to store energy B) Converts kinetic energy back to electrical energy during deceleration C) Operates without any external power source D) Requires a separate generator for operation Answer: B Explanation: Regenerative drives feed energy back to the supply when the car descends or slows. Question 53. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a “buffer” installed at the bottom of the hoistway? A) To absorb impact energy if the car over‑travels the pit B) To support the counterweight C) To guide the car during normal operation
D) To house the emergency brake assembly Answer: A Explanation: Buffers cushion the car’s impact in case of over‑travel or brake failure. Question 54. According to ASME A17.1, the minimum fire‑resistance rating for an elevator machine‑room wall separating it from a fire‑rated corridor is: A) 1‑hour B) 2‑hour C) 3‑hour D) No rating required Answer: B Explanation: A 2‑hour fire‑resistance rating is required to protect the machine room from adjacent fire‑rated spaces. Question 55. The NEC requires that all elevator control panels be equipped with a: A) Ground‑fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) B) Arc‑fault circuit interrupter (AFCI) C) Main disconnecting means with a lockable handle D) Surge protector rated for 10 kA Answer: C Explanation: NEC 430.102 mandates a lockable main disconnect for elevator control panels. Question 56. Which of the following is the correct sequence for a standard elevator “start‑up” test? A) Door operation → Car movement → Safety brake test → Fire service test B) Safety brake test → Door operation → Car movement → Fire service test
