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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD of Virtual ATI Comprehensive Predictor Green Light preparation material for nursing students using Assessment Technologies Institute resources. Includes NGN-style practice questions, comprehensive nursing review topics, NCLEX-style preparation content, clinical judgment exercises, case-based nursing scenarios, and structured study notes designed to strengthen exam readiness and support nursing exam preparation. Virtual ATI, Green Light, Predictor Exam, NGN Questions, Study Guide, Nursing Review, Exam Prep, Clinical Judgment Virtual ATI Predictor, Green Light PDF, ATI Study Guide, NGN Practice PDF, Nursing Exam Prep, Comprehensive Review, Case Scenario Guide, Clinical Judgment Notes, Nursing Review Guide, Predictor Study Pack, Revision Notes PDF, Study Pack PDF, Exam Review Guide, High Yield Notes, Updated Study Guide, Complete Study Pack, ATI Nursing Review, NCLEX Prep Guide, Nursing Success Guide, Predictor Practice PDF
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Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
A. Vomiting
B. Hypertension
C. Epigastric pain
D. Contractions
Correct Answer: D. Contractions
Expert Rationale: Amniocentesis can trigger uterine irritability leading to contractions and potential preterm labor, especially at 33 weeks gestation. Monitoring for contractions is essential. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not common complications of amniocentesis.
A. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep
B. Take a 1 hr nap during the day
C. Perform exercises prior to bedtime
D. Eat a light snack before bedtime
Correct Answer: D. Eat a light snack before bedtime
Expert Rationale: A light carbohydrate or protein snack can promote sleep by preventing hunger. Napping too long or late in the day and vigorous
B. Allow the client's partner to translate
C. Request a female interpreter through the facility
D. Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate
Correct Answer: C. Request a female interpreter through the facility
Expert Rationale: Using a professional interpreter ensures accuracy and confidentiality. A female interpreter is preferred for obstetric care to respect cultural sensitivities. Family members, especially children, are not appropriate interpreters.
a. Flushing
b. Tachycardia
c. Restlessness
d. Shivering
Correct Answer: d. Shivering
Expert Rationale: Shivering indicates the client is responding to cold by generating heat, which raises body temperature and counteracts the cooling intervention. This is an adverse effect and requires prompt reassessment of the approach.
A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B. Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
Correct Answer: B. Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
Expert Rationale: Heparin therapeutic range is typically 1.5-2.5 times the normal PTT (30-40 secs). A lower PTT indicates subtherapeutic levels requiring withholding of heparin until levels are safe. Positioning with the leg elevated is the correct position (not lower), and massaging a DVT can dislodge a clot.
A. An older adult client who has a BMI of 24
B. A client who has a nonhealing leg ulcer
C. An older adult client who has presbyopia
A. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
Correct Answer: B. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Expert Rationale: GERD increases risk for aspiration because stomach contents can reflux into the esophagus and airway. High Fowler’s position decreases aspiration risk. A residual of 65 mL is generally acceptable; formula osmolarity is less significant in aspiration risk.
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C. Nonstress test
D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) 16 to 18 weeks
Correct Answer: D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Expert Rationale: MSAFP is done at 16-18 weeks to screen for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. CVS is performed around 10- weeks, chlamydia screening is done early pregnancy, and nonstress test is done in the third trimester.
A. Decreased serum calcium levels
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Swollen area on calf
D. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: C. Swollen area on calf
Expert Rationale: Swelling in the calf indicates possible DVT, a known immobility complication. Immobilization increases bone resorption leading to hypercalcemia, not decreased calcium. Hypotension (not increased BP) and urinary retention/frequency may also occur but calf swelling is more urgent.
Correct Answer: D. "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication."
Expert Rationale: Drinking water helps clear medication taste and ensures full swallowing. Digoxin should not be mixed with large volumes of fluid due to dosing accuracy. Vomiting requires notifying provider, not repeating dose due to toxicity risk. Potassium should not be limited; hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity risk.
A. Grapefruit
B. Spinach
C. Cottage cheese
D. Smoked salmon
Correct Answer: D. Smoked salmon
Expert Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI, requiring avoidance of tyramine-rich foods like smoked salmon to prevent hypertensive crisis. Spinach and some cheeses are lower risk if not aged; cottage cheese is generally considered safe.
many grams of protein per day should the nurse include in the client's dietary plan? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
a. 68
Correct Answer: a. 68
Expert Rationale: Convert pounds to kg: 99 lb ÷ 2.2 = 45 kg
Protein requirement: 45 kg × 1.5 g/kg = 67.5 g ≈ 68 g/day
A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room
B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if he does not attend group therapy
C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
D. Place the client in seclusion when he exhibits signs of anxiety
Correct Answer: C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods
Expert Rationale: Clients in mania have increased energy and impaired sleep, so rest periods are critical. Encouragement for social interaction depends on client tolerance; withdrawing privileges is punitive and not therapeutic; seclusion is reserved for aggression or safety concerns.
Correct Answer: a. Instruct the nurses to close the client's computer record
Expert Rationale: The first action must stop the violation of client privacy immediately by closing the record. Further disciplinary or educational actions follow.
a. Heart rate 58/min
b. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL
c. Hgb 14 g/dL
d. WBC count 2,900/mm
Correct Answer: d. WBC count 2,900/mm
Expert Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; WBC < 3,000/mm3 is a contraindication. Bradycardia and normal glucose/Hgb are not contraindications but need monitoring.
a. Inserting an NG tube
b. Administering total parenteral nutrition through a central venous access device
c. Initiating IV access
d. Performing tracheostomy care
Correct Answer: d. Performing tracheostomy care
Expert Rationale: Tracheostomy care is a sterile procedure requiring sterile gloves to reduce infection risk. IV insertion and TPN connections involve sterile techniques but usually clean gloves are used; NG tube insertion is a clean procedure.
a. Influenza
b. Measles, mumps, and rubella
c. Human papilloma virus
d. Varicella
Correct Answer: a. Influenza
Expert Rationale: Inactivated influenza vaccine is safe and recommended anytime during pregnancy. MMR and varicella vaccines are live and contraindicated. HPV vaccine is not recommended during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: c. Swelling of the face
Expert Rationale: Facial swelling during pregnancy can indicate preeclampsia, a serious complication requiring immediate medical attention. Bleeding gums and urinary frequency are common. Faintness should be monitored but is less urgent.
a. Document client care at the end of the shift
b. Make the client to-do list for the day
c. Skip breaks until the client tasks are completed
d. Focus on several client tasks at a time
Correct Answer: b. Make the client to-do list for the day
Expert Rationale: Making a to-do list prioritizes and organizes tasks, improving time management. Documenting as you go is safer than waiting until the end. Skipping breaks and multitasking may decrease efficiency and increase errors.
a. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment
b. Administer naloxone to the newborn
c. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended
d. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings
Correct Answer: a. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment
Expert Rationale: Minimizing stimuli like noise and bright lights reduces irritability and seizures in neonatal abstinence syndrome. Naloxone is contraindicated in these infants. Swaddling is recommended but with flexed legs. Eye contact may overstimulate.
A. The anterior fontanel is open
b. The posterior fontanel is open
c. Both fontanels are the same size
d. Both fontanels show molding
Correct Answer: A. The anterior fontanel is open
Expert Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically remains open until 12- months. The posterior fontanel closes by 2-3 months. Molding is a temporary change from vaginal birth and is not present at this age.
Expert Rationale: Low-dose heparin or anticoagulation therapy is standard to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis. Incentive spirometry is encouraged but every 3 hr is insufficient frequency. Mobilization, not prolonged bed rest, is also essential.
A. Burp the infant frequently during feedings
B. Position the nipple at the front of the infant's mouth
C. Hold the infant in a supine position
D. Use feeding devices without nipples
Correct Answer: A. Burp the infant frequently during feedings
Expert Rationale: Frequent burping reduces air swallowed due to poor seal and swallowing difficulties. Nipple should be positioned toward the back of the mouth. Supine position increases aspiration risk; semi-upright preferred. Specialized nipples are recommended.
A. A client who depressive disorder and requires assistance with ADLs
B. A client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder and is upset about a change in a daily routine
C. A client who is taking clozapine to treat schizophrenia and reports sore throat
D. A client who has narcissistic personality disorder and is mocking others during group therapy
Correct Answer: C. A client who is taking clozapine to treat schizophrenia and reports sore throat
Expert Rationale: A sore throat can indicate agranulocytosis, a life- threatening side effect of clozapine requiring immediate assessment. Other clients have nonurgent needs.
A. Develop an hourly time frame for tasks
B. Schedule daily activities
C. Determine goals of the day
D. Delegate tasks to the AP
Correct Answer: C. Determine goals of the day
