Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD of Virtual ATI Predictor Green Light preparation material for nursing students using Assessment Technologies Institute resources. Includes 3 practice sets, NGN-style practice questions, comprehensive nursing review topics, clinical judgment exercises, case scenarios, and structured study notes designed to strengthen exam readiness and support nursing exam preparation. Virtual ATI, Green Light, NGN Questions, Study Guide, Practice Sets, Nursing Review, Exam Prep, Clinical Judgment Virtual ATI Predictor, Green Light PDF, 3 Exam Sets, NGN Practice PDF, ATI Study Guide, Nursing Exam Prep, Predictor Review Notes, Case Scenario Guide, Clinical Judgment Notes, Nursing Review Guide, Revision Notes PDF, Study Pack PDF, Exam Review Guide, High Yield Notes, Updated Study Guide, Complete Study Pack, ATI Nursing Review, Predictor Practice Guide, Nursing Success Guide, NCLEX Prep PDF
Typology: Exams
1 / 360
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
Table of Contents
Virtual ATI Predictor (Green Light) Exam Set 1 ...................................... 2
Virtual ATI Predictor (Green Light) Exam Set 2 ................................. 124 Virtual ATI Predictor (Green Light) Exam Set 3 ................................. 229
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
A. Vomiting
B. Hypertension
C. Epigastric pain
D. Contractions
Correct Answer: D. Contractions
Expert Rationale: Amniocentesis can trigger uterine irritability leading to contractions and potential preterm labor, especially at 33 weeks gestation. Monitoring for contractions is essential. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not common complications of amniocentesis.
Correct Answer: B. Defibrillate
Expert Rationale: Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening cardiac arrest rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation. The nurse’s priority is to defibrillate to restore a perfusing rhythm. Other interventions follow.
4. A nurse is admitting a client who is 1 week postpartum and reports excessive vaginal bleeding. The nurse does not speak the same language as the client. The client's partner and 10-year-old child are accompanying her. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to gather the client's admission data?
A. Have the client's child translate
B. Allow the client's partner to translate
C. Request a female interpreter through the facility
D. Ask a nursing student who speaks the same language as the client to translate
Correct Answer: C. Request a female interpreter through the facility
Expert Rationale: Using a professional interpreter ensures accuracy and confidentiality. A female interpreter is preferred for obstetric care to respect cultural sensitivities. Family members, especially children, are not appropriate interpreters.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is febrile. To reduce the client's fever, the nurse applies a cooling blanket. Which of the following findings indicates the client is having an adverse reaction to the cooling?
a. Flushing
b. Tachycardia
c. Restlessness
d. Shivering
Correct Answer: d. Shivering
Expert Rationale: Shivering indicates the client is responding to cold by generating heat, which raises body temperature and counteracts the cooling intervention. This is an adverse effect and requires prompt reassessment of the approach.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein-thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Exhibit)
A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
B. Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
C. Administer acetaminophen
D. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hr
Correct Answer: B. Withhold heparin IV infusion PTT- 30-40 seconds; x2 if on heparin
b. Take magnesium hydroxide for indigestion
c. Drink at least 3 L of fluid daily
Consume foods high in potassium- restrict
a. Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Correct Answer: a. Eat 1 g/kg of protein per day
Expert Rationale: Protein needs are increased due to losses during dialysis. Magnesium-containing antacids are avoided because kidney disease impairs magnesium clearance. Fluid intake is often restricted, and potassium intake typically limited.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
A. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding
B. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Receiving a high osmolarity formula
D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hr postprandial
Correct Answer: B. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease
Expert Rationale: GERD increases risk for aspiration because stomach contents can reflux into the esophagus and airway. High Fowler’s position decreases aspiration risk. A residual of 65 mL is generally acceptable; formula osmolarity is less significant in aspiration risk.
10. A nurse is providing prenatal teaching to a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse should tell the client that she will undergo which of the following screening tests at 16 weeks of gestation?
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Cervical cultures for chlamydia
C. Nonstress test
D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) 16 to 18 weeks
Correct Answer: D. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein- 16 to 18 weeks
Expert Rationale: MSAFP is done at 16-18 weeks to screen for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. CVS is performed around 10- weeks, chlamydia screening is done early pregnancy, and nonstress test is done in the third trimester.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who is on bed rest. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a complication of immobility?
A. Decreased serum calcium levels
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Swollen area on calf
D. Urinary frequency
13. A nurse is providing teaching about digoxin administration to the parents of a toddler who has heart failure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You can add the medication to a half-cup of your child's favorite juice."
B. "Repeat the dose if your child vomits within 1 hour after taking medication."
C. "Limit your child's potassium intake while she is taking this medication."
D. "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication."
Correct Answer: D. "Have your child drink a small glass of water after swallowing the medication."
Expert Rationale: Drinking water helps clear medication taste and ensures full swallowing. Digoxin should not be mixed with large volumes of fluid due to dosing accuracy. Vomiting requires notifying provider, not repeating dose due to toxicity risk. Potassium should not be limited; hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity risk.
14. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a depressive disorder and a new prescription for phenelzine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Grapefruit
B. Spinach
C. Cottage cheese
D. Smoked salmon
Correct Answer: D. Smoked salmon
Expert Rationale: Phenelzine is an MAOI, requiring avoidance of tyramine- rich foods like smoked salmon to prevent hypertensive crisis. Spinach and some cheeses are lower risk if not aged; cottage cheese is generally considered safe.
15. A nurse is planning care for a client who has COPD and weighs 99 lb. The provider has prescribed a diet of 1.5 g protein/kg/day. How many grams of protein per day should the nurse include in the client's dietary plan? (Round to the nearest whole number.)
a. 68
Correct Answer: a. 68
Expert Rationale: Convert pounds to kg: 99 lb ÷ 2.2 = 45 kg
Protein requirement: 45 kg × 1.5 g/kg = 67.5 g ≈ 68 g/day
16. A nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room
B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if he does not attend group therapy
18. A nurse manager observes two staff nurses reviewing the computer records of a client who is not under their care. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager take first?
a. Instruct the nurses to close the client's computer record
b. Request the nurses present an in-service on client confidentiality
c. Advise the nurses to read the facility's confidentiality policy
d. Place documentation of the nurses' actions in the personnel file
Correct Answer: a. Instruct the nurses to close the client's computer record
Expert Rationale: The first action must stop the violation of client privacy immediately by closing the record. Further disciplinary or educational actions follow.
19. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
a. Heart rate 58/min
b. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL
c. Hgb 14 g/dL
d. WBC count 2,900/mm
Correct Answer: d. WBC count 2,900/mm
Expert Rationale: Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; WBC < 3,000/mm is a contraindication. Bradycardia and normal glucose/Hgb are not contraindications but need monitoring.
20. A nurse is caring for several clients on a medical-surgical unit. For which of the following nurse activities is it required that the nurse use sterile gloves?
a. Inserting an NG tube
b. Administering total parenteral nutrition through a central venous access device
c. Initiating IV access
d. Performing tracheostomy care
Correct Answer: d. Performing tracheostomy care
Expert Rationale: Tracheostomy care is a sterile procedure requiring sterile gloves to reduce infection risk. IV insertion and TPN connections involve sterile techniques but usually clean gloves are used; NG tube insertion is a clean procedure.
21. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 11 weeks of gestation. Which of the following immunizations should the nurse give?
23. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?
a. Bleeding gums
b. Faintness upon rising
c. Swelling of the face
d. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: c. Swelling of the face
Expert Rationale: Facial swelling during pregnancy can indicate preeclampsia, a serious complication requiring immediate medical attention. Bleeding gums and urinary frequency are common. Faintness should be monitored but is less urgent.
24. A nurse has received change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to manage time effectively?
a. Document client care at the end of the shift
b. Make the client to-do list for the day
c. Skip breaks until the client tasks are completed
d. Focus on several client tasks at a time
Correct Answer: b. Make the client to-do list for the day
Expert Rationale: Making a to-do list prioritizes and organizes tasks, improving time management. Documenting as you go is safer than waiting until the end. Skipping breaks and multitasking may decrease efficiency and increase errors.
25. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn whose mother tested positive for heroin during pregnancy. The newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
a. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment
b. Administer naloxone to the newborn
c. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended
d. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings
Correct Answer: a. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment
Expert Rationale: Minimizing stimuli like noise and bright lights reduces irritability and seizures in neonatal abstinence syndrome. Naloxone is contraindicated in these infants. Swaddling is recommended but with flexed legs. Eye contact may overstimulate.
26. A nurse is assessing the fontanels of an 8-month-old infant. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an expected finding?
A. The anterior fontanel is open
c. Both fontanels are the same size
d. Both fontanels show molding
Correct Answer: A. The anterior fontanel is open
Expert Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically remains open until 12- 18 months. The posterior fontanel closes by 2-3 months. Molding is a temporary change from vaginal birth and is not present at this age.
27. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute diverticulitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend to the client?
a. High residue
b. Lactose-free
c. Gluten-free
d. Low-fiber
Correct Answer: d. Low-fiber
Expert Rationale: During acute diverticulitis, a low-fiber diet is recommended to reduce bowel irritation. High fiber is advised during recovery or diverticulosis but contraindicated during active inflammation.
28. A nurse is caring for a client who is 48 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Administer low-dose heparin
B. Place the client on a full liquid diet
C. Use an incentive spirometer every 3 hr
D. Maintain the client on bed rest
Correct Answer: A. Administer low-dose heparin
Expert Rationale: Low-dose heparin or anticoagulation therapy is standard to prevent postoperative deep vein thrombosis. Incentive spirometry is encouraged but every 3 hr is insufficient frequency. Mobilization, not prolonged bed rest, is also essential.
29. A nurse is providing teaching to the parent of an infant who has a cleft lip palate. Which of the following feeding techniques should the nurse include?
A. Burp the infant frequently during feedings
B. Position the nipple at the front of the infant's mouth
C. Hold the infant in a supine position
D. Use feeding devices without nipples
Correct Answer: A. Burp the infant frequently during feedings
