Download West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam (Latest 2025/2026) /West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam, Exams of Me and more Exams Medicine in PDF only on Docsity!
West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam (Latest 2025/2026)
/West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam, Exams of
Medicine Graded A+|Validate Pass
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will. - ANSWER -B. begin
CPR until an AED is available. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. -
ANSWER -B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat
conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest - ANSWER -B. allow full
chest recoil Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration. - ANSWER -B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which
improved chest compression effectiveness. - ANSWER -D.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. b. c. in patients who are intubated. d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. - ANSWER -e. if you
ventilate a patient too quickly. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. leave it in place B. continue chest compressions C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side - ANSWER -C. remove it
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe chest trauma. C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose. - ANSWER -C. respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. - ANSWER -
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. grasping the throat. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing. - ANSWER -D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. - ANSWER -
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. improve over time C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time - ANSWER -D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. place the patient supine. B. encourage the patient to cough. C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts. - ANSWER -B. encourage the
patient to cough. Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication
residue, and apply the AED pads. - ANSWER -D. remove the
medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of
exposure to secretions. - ANSWER -C. you were exposed to
another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control.
Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure.
D. is less resistant to treatment. - ANSWER -B. has a greater
ability to produce disease. In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. epidemics. B. parasitic infection. C. uncontrolled outbreaks.
D. pandemics. - ANSWER -D. pandemics.
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one: A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a
ground transport time of 50 minutes - ANSWER -D. 61-year-old
man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. endocrine B. respiratory C. cardiac
D. neurologic - ANSWER -D. neurologic
Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. abdominal pain C. seizures
D. a fever - ANSWER -D. a fever
Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital B. confirm the patient's diagnosis C. address the patient's symptoms
D. Primary assessment - ANSWER -C. Medical history
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en
route to the hospital. - ANSWER -C. limit your time at the scene
to 10 minutes or less, if possible. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also
injured. - ANSWER -C. the conditions of many medical patients
may not appear serious at first. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Depression C. Schizophrenia
D. Substance abuse - ANSWER -D. Substance abuse
Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough B. MRSA C. H1N
D. Avian flu - ANSWER -B. MRSA
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm
D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension - ANSWER -B. 68-
year-old woman with type 2 diabetes You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients
D. cardiac patients - ANSWER -A. respiratory patients
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/ mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol.
D. an antihistamine. - ANSWER -A. epinephrine.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel- shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Exacerbation of his COPD C. Acute pulmonary embolism
D. Rupture of the diaphragm - ANSWER -A. Spontaneous
pneumothorax A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. - ANSWER -A. fluid
accumulation outside the lung. Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system.
D. respiratory system. - ANSWER -A. immune system.
Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways C. narrowing of the upper airways
D. air passing through fluid - ANSWER -D. air passing through
fluid
A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Trachea
D. Capillaries - ANSWER -A. Alveoli
Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg -
ANSWER -D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/
mm Hg When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds.
D. an absence of breath sounds. - ANSWER -A. abnormal breath
sounds. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema
D. Narcotic overdose - ANSWER -B. Severe anxiety
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Celiac sprue - ANSWER -C. Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy
skin - ANSWER -C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath
sounds and pink skin
