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West Coast EMT Block 3
A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is: a epilepsy b a brain tumor c intracraniular bleeding - a A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: a right hemisphere stroke b unable to produce or understand speech. c usually concoius with slurred speach - b A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: a has bleeding within the brain. b GSC score of less than 8 c has had a prior heart attack - a A patient with an altered mental status a typically alert but unaware of the proceeding events b usually able to be aroused by painful stimuli c not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused - c Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include: a air dift, memmory, facial droop
b facial droop, speech, and pupil size c arm drift, speech, and facial droop. - c Febrile seizures:Choose one answer. A. are also referred to as petit mal seizures. B. often result in permanent brain damage. C. occur when a child's fever progressively rises. D. are usually benign but should be evaluated. - d Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:Select one: a. brain. b. kidneys. c. pancreas. d. liver. - d muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the a cerebellum b cerebrum c brain stem - a Status epilepticus is characterized by:Choose one answer. A. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness. B. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura. C. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment - d When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:Choose one answer. A. an acute stroke. B. respiratory distress. C. a seizure. D. a febrile convulsion. - c Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm? a confusion weakeness b sudden severe headache c bloody nasal discharge - b Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?Select one: a. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest b. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere c. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe d. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe - a Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache? a history of miagrines b neck pain or stiffness c sinus congestion -
b Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke? A. Acute atherosclerotic disease B. Blockage of a cerebral artery C. Narrowing of a carotid artery D. Rupture of a cerebral artery - b a technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patine that said, is called: a reflective listening b active listening c intuitive listening - a common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) intense stress B) schizophrenia C) Alzheimer's disease D) mind-altering substance use - c immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: a inform medical control b reassess patients breathing and air way c advise patient as to why restraints were used - b
b elevated blood glucose - a Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder? a drug addiction b alztimer disease c Schizophrenia - c A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for: a pneumonia b heart failure c bronchiosis - a An abdominal aortic aneurysm A. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders B. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area C. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early D. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis - d Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. prescription medication use B. alcohol abuse and dependence C. chronic medical conditions D. an acute onset of dementia - d
Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of :A) osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B) increased bone density and car crashes. C) arthritic joints and high-energy trauma .D) acetabular separation and severe falls. - a Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A) have minor abrasions to the head area .B) are taking blood-thinning medications. C) do not have deformities to the skull. D) have a history of Alzheimer's disease. - b Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of _________ elder abuse: A. financial B. physical C. emotional D. psychological - b The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A) fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B) tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C) jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D) swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. -
If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should: a attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly. b instill 20ml of saline to the tracheostomy tube c attach a bag valve mask to the tracheostomy tube - a Spina bifida is defined as: a remove fluid from abdomen b. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. - b The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: A. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. C. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. D. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. - b Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? A. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles B. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate C. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms D. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located - d Vagal nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with: a chronic seizure disorders. b chronic muscle pain - a
When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A) report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B) voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C) document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D) avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. - a Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? a gastro tubes are place directly in the small intestine b are used for patients who cannot digest food c Patients with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration. - c A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:Select one: A. aortic aneurysm. B. strangulated hernia. C. kidney stones. D. acute pancreatitis. - a A strangulated hernia is one that:Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. C. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. D. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. - a
A. pancreatitis. B. appendicitis. C. cholecystitis. D. gastroenteritis. - b The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: A. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. C. removing sodium, and thus water, from the body. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. - c The parietal peritoneum lines the: a lungs and chest cavity b retroperitoneal space c walls of the abdominal cavity - c The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is: a diarrhea b vommiting c dysuria - a Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? A. cystitis. B. hepatitis. C. pancreatitis.
D. cholecystitis - a Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? A. the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C. sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants D. burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating - d Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? A. liver B. kidney C. spleen D. pancreas - c Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. gallbladder - c Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? A. liver B. stomach C. appendix
d drying of the eyes. - d The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. a 1 hour b 30 minutes c 1 minute - c Two of the most common symptoms of anaphylaxis are a urticaria and angioedema b stridor and tachydria c hypertension and swollen hands - a Which of the following most accurately defines an allergic reaction a destruciton of the immune system in respons to substance b direct negative effect on the body c an exaggerated immune system response to any substance - c Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway a wheezing b stridor c rales - b when auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates
a narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs b rapid swelling of upper airways c enlargment of bronchioles - a A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: a significantly hyperglycemic b hypoglycemic c UTI - a Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. D. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. - c Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a/an: A. abnormally high blood glucose level B. disorder of carbohydrates metabolism C. lack of insulin production in the pancreas D. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys - b
Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. diet and exercise. B. tolbutamide (Orinase). C. glyburide (Micronase). D. supplemental insulin. - d Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: A. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. B. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. C. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. D. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage. - b Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin .B. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. C. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections - a To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? A. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin D. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor - d
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: A. rate and depth of breathing. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. patient's mental status. D. presence of a medical identification tag. - a Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? A. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. B. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. C. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. - a A hypnotic drug is one that: a induces sleep. b prevents amnesia. c increases the pulse d.increases the sense - a patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: a cocaine. b aspirin. c Tylenol. d ibuprofen. - b
