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West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. start CPR and transport immediately. B. begin CPR until an AED is available. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will. - B. begin CPR until an AED is available. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. - B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. allow full chest recoil C. administer a breath D. remove your hands from the chest - B. allow full chest recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a fractured sternum. B. gastric distention. C. rib fractures. D. liver laceration. - B. gastric distention. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. - D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. occurs every 24 months. B. is delivered by computer. C. involves hands-on practice. D. is self-paced and brief. - C. involves hands-on practice. CPR should be initiated when: Select one:
C. remove it In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. severe chest trauma. C. respiratory arrest. D. a drug overdose. - C. respiratory arrest. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. - D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. grasping the throat. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. forceful coughing. - D. forceful coughing. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression- decompression CPR by:
Select one: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. - A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 30: B. 5: C. 30: D. 3:2 - A. 30: When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches. B. with one or two hands. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. 80 to 100 times per minute. - B. with one or two hands. While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one:
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. - D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: Select one: A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. - C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. contact medical control. B. notify law enforcement. C. quickly access the patient. D. take standard precautions. - D. take standard precautions. An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. - C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. nature of illness B. field diagnosis C. associated symptoms D. medical history - A. nature of illness Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: Select one: A. is a more contagious type of disease. B. has a greater ability to produce disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. is less resistant to treatment. - B. has a greater ability to produce disease. In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. epidemics. B. parasitic infection. C. uncontrolled outbreaks. D. pandemics. - D. pandemics. In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? Select one:
D. correct the patient's underlying problem - C. address the patient's symptoms The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: Select one: A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients. B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad. C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient. - C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. - B. after the primary assessment has been completed. When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem? Select one: A. Baseline vital signs B. Index of suspicion C. Medical history D. Primary assessment - C. Medical history
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. - C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. - C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Alzheimer disease B. Depression C. Schizophrenia D. Substance abuse - D. Substance abuse Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough
B. medical emergency. C. trauma emergency. D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. - D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients - A. respiratory patients A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. a beta-antagonist. C. albuterol. D. an antihistamine. - A. epinephrine. A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Exacerbation of his COPD
C. Acute pulmonary embolism D. Rupture of the diaphragm - A. Spontaneous pneumothorax A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. a unilaterally collapsed lung. D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. - A. fluid accumulation outside the lung. Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. immune system. B. cardiovascular system. C. endocrine system. D. respiratory system. - A. immune system. Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. severe bronchoconstriction B. mucus in the larger airways C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid - D. air passing through fluid
Select one: A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg - D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. abnormal breath sounds. B. diminished breath sounds. C. normal breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds. - A. abnormal breath sounds. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Severe anxiety C. Pulmonary edema D. Narcotic overdose - B. Severe anxiety Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Multiple sclerosis B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Celiac sprue - C. Cystic fibrosis Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin - C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Orthostatic vital signs B. Lung sounds C. Blood glucose levels D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation - B. Lung sounds While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Aspiration pneumonia B. Widespread atelectasis C. Early pulmonary edema D. Acute asthma attack - A. Aspiration pneumonia
Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. alternate drive B. CO2 drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive - C. hypoxic drive A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. - D. assess the adequacy of his respirations. A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. - B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
Select one: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. - C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place. - B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease - B. Acute myocardial infarction A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
