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WGU C954 Information Technology
Management Objective Assessment Final
Actual Exam latest 2025-2026, Questions
with verified and Detailed Answers (Grade
A+)
1. Which IT governance framework focuses on aligning IT goals with business goals? A. ISO 27001 B. COBIT C. ITIL D. NIST CSF Answer: B Rationale: COBIT is designed for enterprise governance and alignment between IT and business objectives. 2. Which SDLC phase determines user requirements? A. Planning B. Analysis C. Design D. Implementation Answer: B Rationale: The analysis phase identifies detailed system requirements.
3. What is the main purpose of an IT Steering Committee? A. Approve vendor contracts B. Oversee IT strategy and ensure alignment with business goals C. Manage day-to-day IT operations D. Perform network security audits Answer: B Rationale: Steering committees maintain business–IT alignment. 4. Which metric best evaluates service desk effectiveness? A. Number of tickets created B. Cost per ticket C. First call resolution rate D. Number of IT staff Answer: C Rationale: First-call resolution indicates service quality and efficiency. 5. A project is behind schedule. Which PM tool shows task dependencies? A. Gantt chart B. PERT chart C. Heat map D. Dashboard Answer: B Rationale: PERT shows task relationships and critical paths.
9. In project management, scope creep is prevented by: A. Large budgets B. Strong change control processes C. Short timelines D. Increased staffing Answer: B Rationale: Change control manages scope and prevents unauthorized changes. 10. Which risk response eliminates the risk entirely? A. Mitigation B. Transfer C. Avoidance D. Acceptance Answer: C Rationale: Avoidance = removing the activity causing the risk. 11. A company leases servers instead of owning them. This is: A. CapEx B. OpEx C. Depreciation D. ROI Answer: B Rationale: Leasing = operational expense.
12. Which document describes how IT will support business strategy over the next 3–5 years? A. SOP B. SWOT C. IT Strategic Plan D. Data Dictionary **Answer: C
- Multi-factor authentication improves security by:** A. Encrypting files B. Using two or more authentication methods C. Blocking all logins D. Hiding passwords Answer: B Rationale: MFA uses something you know, have, or are. 14. A disaster recovery site that is fully equipped but without current data is a: A. Hot site B. Warm site C. Cold site D. Virtual site Answer: B Rationale: Warm = hardware ready but data needs loading. 15. The key purpose of IT portfolio management is to:
D. Pareto chart Answer: C
19. Which law protects medical information? A. SOX B. HIPAA C. GDPR D. FERPA **Answer: B
- What is the purpose of business continuity planning?** A. Prevent incidents B. Restore critical operations quickly C. Reduce staffing D. Lower budgets **Answer: B
- Virtualization helps reduce:** A. Software updates B. Hardware usage and energy cost C. Security patches D. Network latency **Answer: B
- A help desk ticket system is an example of:**
A. Tactical IT B. Operational IT C. Strategic IT D. Governance IT Answer: B
23. Which is a key element of information security management? A. Password sharing B. Least privilege C. Open access D. Single passwords **Answer: B
- A project with fixed price, fixed scope is best managed using:** A. Agile B. Scrum C. Waterfall D. Kanban Answer: C Rationale: Waterfall suits stable, defined requirements. 25. Mean time to repair (MTTR) measures: A. Uptime percentage B. Average time to restore a service after failure C. Help desk productivity
29. What is the purpose of SLA reviews? A. Determine IT staffing B. Measure vendor performance C. Track employee absences D. Review budgets **Answer: B
- Which backup method stores only changes since the last full backup?** A. Incremental B. Differential C. Full backup D. Cold backup **Answer: A
- A phishing attack targets:** A. System software B. Human users C. Routers D. Servers **Answer: B
- Which term describes combining multiple physical servers into one?** A. Load balancing B. Consolidation
C. Scaling D. Clustering Answer: B
33. ROI is used to evaluate: A. Incident priority B. Financial return on IT investments C. Staffing levels D. Vendor security **Answer: B
- The primary responsibility of a project sponsor is to:** A. Define tasks B. Provide funding and leadership support C. Write code D. Close tickets **Answer: B
- Which is the correct order of the SDLC?** A. Analysis → Testing → Design → Planning B. Planning → Analysis → Design → Implementation C. Testing → Design → Planning → Analysis D. Implementation → Design → Testing → Planning Answer: B
D. Efficiency Answer: B
40. Which is a strategic responsibility of the CIO? A. Resetting passwords B. Managing help desk tickets C. Aligning IT strategy with business goals D. Configuring routers **Answer: C
- Which term describes outsourcing IT services to another country?** A. Onshoring B. Nearshoring C. Offshoring D. Insourcing **Answer: C
- Shadow IT occurs when:** A. IT supports unauthorized users B. Employees use technology without IT approval C. Systems are offline D. Developers use Agile methods **Answer: B
- A strong cybersecurity policy should include:**
A. Password sharing B. User access guidelines C. Unlimited admin rights D. No patching Answer: B
44. A pilot implementation involves: A. Releasing the system to all users at once B. Implementing with a small group first C. Testing only D. Skipping deployment **Answer: B
- Which term refers to the amount of time a system can be down before causing major damage?** A. RPO B. MTBF C. RTO D. SLA Answer: C Rationale: RTO = maximum tolerable downtime. 46. IT policies should be updated: A. Every 20 years B. Only when systems crash C. Periodically and when new threats appear
A. The budget is used B. The sponsor formally accepts deliverables C. Developers stop coding D. A new project begins Answer: B Identified as the longest stretch of dependent activities and measuring them from start to finish Critical path Identified as the longest stretch of dependent activities and measuring them from start to finish Critical path Supports traditional transactional processing for day to day front office operations or systems that deal directly with the customers Operational CRM Supports traditional transactional processing for day to day front office operations or systems that deal directly with the customers Operational CRM A self-managed computer model named after and patterned on the human body's autonomic nervous system Autonomic computing
A self-managed computer model named after and patterned on the human body's autonomic nervous system Autonomic computing The network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network and increasingly advance threats targeting enterprises Real-time adaptive security The network security model necessary to accommodate the emergence of multiple perimeters and moving parts on the network and increasingly advance threats targeting enterprises Real-time adaptive security Software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge of representation of the users goals or desires Autonomous agent Software that carries out some set of operations on behalf of a user or another program with some degree of independence or autonomy and employs some knowledge of representation of the users goals or desires Autonomous agent A type of artificial intelligence that enables computers to both understand concepts in the environment and also to learn Machine learning
The most recent version of the communications protocol that provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) The most recent version of the communications protocol that provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) Capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources even though they are made by different manufacturers Interoperability Capability of two or more computer systems to share data and resources even though they are made by different manufacturers Interoperability A standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission Protocol A standard that specifies the format of data as well as the rules to be followed during transmission Protocol
A coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) Geocoding A coding process that assigns a digital map feature to an attribute that serves as a unique ID (tract number, node number) or classification (soil type, zoning category) Geocoding Identifies the geographical location of features and boundaries on earth such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more Spatial data (geospatial data) Identifies the geographical location of features and boundaries on earth such as natural or constructed features, oceans, and more Spatial data (geospatial data) Stores, views, and analyze geographic data creating a multidimensional chart or map Geographic information system (GIS) Stores, views, and analyze geographic data creating a multidimensional chart or map Geographic information system (GIS)
