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WGU D317 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | D317 IT APPLICATIONS EXAM WITH COMPLETE 950 REAL EXAM WGU D317 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | D317 IT APPLICATIONS EXAM WITH COMPLETE 950 REAL EXAM WGU D317 OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | D317 IT APPLICATIONS EXAM WITH COMPLETE 950 REAL EXAM
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Domain: IT Fundamentals / Networking
1. Which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing? A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport Rationale: The correct answer is C. Network. The Network layer (Layer 3) handles logical addressing (IP addresses) and routing packets between networks. The Physical layer (A) deals with cables/signals; Data Link (B) with MAC addresses and switches; Transport (D) with end-to-end connections and ports.
2. In Agile methodology, what is the primary purpose of a "sprint retrospective"? A. To demo completed work to stakeholders B. To plan tasks for the next sprint C. To review and improve team processes D. To estimate story points Rationale: The correct answer is C. A sprint retrospective is a meeting where the team reflects on the past sprint to discuss what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve processes. Sprint review (A) demos work; sprint planning (B) plans the next sprint; story point estimation (D) happens in backlog grooming. 3. A project has a CPI (Cost Performance Index) of 0.85. What does this indicate? A. The project is under budget B. The project is over budget C. The project is ahead of schedule D. The project is behind schedule Rationale: The correct answer is B. CPI = EV/AC. A CPI < 1.0 means 4. Which database normalization form eliminates transitive dependencies? A. 1NF B. 2NF you are getting less value than what you’re spending → over budget. CPI relates to cost, not schedule (C, D); over 1.0 would be under budget (A).
7. In IT service management (ITSM), which process is responsible for managing long-term improvements to IT services? A. Incident Management B. Change Management C. Service Level Management D. Continual Service Improvement Rationale: The correct answer is D. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) focuses on aligning/realigning IT services to business needs through incremental improvements. Incident (A) handles disruptions; Change (B) manages changes; Service Level (C) manages agreements. 8. What does the "B" in B-tree stand for? A. Binary B. Balanced C. Branching D. Bayer (creator’s name) Rationale: The correct answer is B. B-tree stands for Balanced tree , 9. A stakeholder requests a major change late in the project. What should the project manager do FIRST? A. Implement the change immediately B. Update the project plan and notify the team C. Assess impact on scope, time, and cost D. Deny the change to avoid scope creep Rationale: The correct answer is C. The project manager should first analyze the change request for impacts on constraints before meaning all leaf nodes are at the same depth, ensuring efficient search, insert, delete operations in databases/file systems.
deciding. Immediate implementation (A) or denial (D) are premature; updating plan (B) happens after approval.
10. Which protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable data delivery? A. UDP B. HTTP C. TCP D. ICMP Rationale: The correct answer is C. TCP (Transmission Control 11. In SQL, which clause is used to filter groups after aggregation? A. WHERE B. HAVING C. GROUP BY D. FILTER Rationale: The correct answer is B. HAVING filters results after aggregation (e.g., GROUP BY). WHERE filters rows before aggregation; GROUP BY groups rows; FILTER is not a standard SQL clause for this purpose. 12. What is the main goal of Business Process Reengineering (BPR)? Protocol) is connection-oriented (via 3-way handshake) and ensures reliable, ordered delivery. UDP is connectionless/unreliable; HTTP is an application protocol that typically runs over TCP; ICMP is for diagnostics.
if the project should proceed. Analysis focuses on requirements gathering.
15. Which risk response strategy involves transferring the risk to a third party? A. Avoid B. Mitigate C. Transfer D. Accept Rationale: The correct answer is C. Transfer shifts risk to another party (e.g., via insurance, outsourcing). Avoid eliminates the risk; Mitigate reduces impact/probability; Accept acknowledges and monitors. 16. An IP address of 169.254.x.x typically indicates: A. A valid DHCP-assigned address B. A static IP configuration C. An APIPA self-assigned address D. A loopback address Rationale: The correct answer is C. 169.254.x.x is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address, self-assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable. Loopback is 127.x.x.x; valid DHCP addresses are in the network’s defined range. 17. What does the "Two-Pizza Team" rule in Agile emphasize? A. Teams should be small enough to be fed by two pizzas B. Teams should celebrate milestones with pizza C. Pair programming requires two people sharing a pizza
D. Daily stand-ups should include snacks Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amazon’s “Two-Pizza Team” rule means teams should be small (typically 5–9 people) for better communication, autonomy, and agility—metaphorically, fed by two pizzas.
18. In IT governance, COBIT stands for: A. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology B. Certified Objectives in Business IT C. Corporate Objectives for IT Balance D. Common Operations for IT Business Rationale: The correct answer is A. COBIT is an IT governance framework created by ISACA: Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. 19. Which type of testing checks if the system meets business requirements? A. Unit Testing B. Integration Testing C. System Testing D. User Acceptance Testing Rationale: The correct answer is D. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) validates that the system meets business requirements and is ready for use. Unit tests code; Integration tests interfaces; System tests entire system.
uses NTFS
Ubuntu a free, open-source operating system (OS) based on Linux Fedora, Debian, Mint, Arch, or CentOS (other Linux OS) Android OS operating system that was designed to be able to support the smartphone and tablet market based on Linux manufacturer customizable Chrome OS Proprietary OS developed by Google made for laptops and desktops low cost, safe and secure MacOS -Operating system used on Mac computers built by Apple -previously OSX uses APFS
Indexing a catalog of file and folder locations to help speed up searches in NTFS Dynamic discs combines physical discs into 1 large disc that's understood by the operating system in NTFS Journaling a feature of NTFS that allows the operating system to record changes made to a volume. This feature helps improve system reliability and data integrity File allocation table 32/ FAT -max volume up to 2 TB/max file size of 4 GB FAT is supported by Windows, Unix, Linux, and macOS but limited to 32bit -usually used on removable drives like external hard drives or USB flash drives
Extended file type system/ ext3 and ext supported by Linux and Unix systems ext3 max volume of 32 TB/ max file size of 2 TB ext max volume of 1 EB/ max file size of 16 TB Apple file system/APFS -Default file system for macOS-based computers and laptops -considered a journaled filesystem, and provides same journaling benefits as in NTFS -APFS has a higher level of performance when dealing with SSD than a traditional HDD Extensible File Allocation Table (exFAT) -exFAT supports large volumes of up to 128 PB in size and file sizes of up to 16 EB
-UE-V settings customization/ allows multiple people to use the same machine but separates all their settings Direct access is used to allow connectivity for remote users without the use of a VPN -Credential guard -Windows Enterprise edition has a limit of 6 TB of memory/ supports up to 4 processors -Windows To Go creates an image version of a corporate Windows 10 environment that can be run on a user's personal computer BitLocker Windows encryption feature that protects data from unauthorized access by encrypting a drive and requiring authentication before it unlocks Group Policy Editor a Windows administration tool that allows users to configure settings for their computers or networks. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) a protocol or technical standard for using a desktop computer remotely Windows Information Protection (WIP) a set of policies that help orgs protect corporate data on employeeowned devices
Retail license allows you to buy one license for one piece of hardware Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) license A software license that only manufacturers or builders of personal computers can purchase to be installed on a computer intended for sale App-V -An application virtualization technology used to stream applications without installing them locally. The only local installation required is the App-V client, which enables virtual applications to run on Windows computers. -protects the rest of the operating system from any kind of malware UE-V (User Experience Virtualization) monitors registered applications and Windows for any settings changes, then synchronizes those settings between devices
Data-only upgrade keeps all personal files, but not any applications or settings In-place install -Upgrades the current version of the operating system into a newer version Attended installation An installation of Windows that is not automated, where the user is required to pay attention throughout the entire process to provide information and to respond to messages. Also called a manual installation Unattended installation A type of OS installation where special scripts perform all the OS setup duties without human intervention.
Image deployment -a standardized image file copy of an operating system, along with its settings, applications, and data, to multiple devices or servers. -This image can be stored on a DVD or USB Remote Network Installation OS installation where the source files are placed in a shared directory on a network server. The tech can boot the computer, connect to the source location on the network, and start the installation from there Upgrade considerations