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Question 1. Which anatomical plane divides the body into right and left halves? A) Coronal B) Transverse C) Midsagittal D) Oblique Answer: C Explanation: The midsagittal (or median) plane runs vertically through the midline, separating the body into equal right and left portions. Question 2. In the standard anatomical position, the palms face: A) Posteriorly B) Laterally C) Anteriorly D) Inferiorly Answer: C Explanation: In the anatomical position, the patient stands upright, feet together, arms at the sides with palms facing forward (anteriorly). Question 3. The term “proximal” refers to a location that is: A) Near the midline B) Near the point of attachment to the trunk C) Farther from the trunk D) Toward the head Answer: B Explanation: Proximal describes a structure closer to the body’s center or point of attachment, opposite of distal.
Question 4. Which body habitus most commonly places the gallbladder higher in the thoracic cavity? A) Sthenic B) Hyposthenic C) Asthenic D) Hypersthenic Answer: D Explanation: Hypersthenic (broad, deep thorax) habitus can elevate abdominal organs such as the gallbladder into a higher thoracic position. Question 5. The vertebra prominens, used as a surface landmark for neck radiographs, is: A) C B) C C) C D) C Answer: D Explanation: C7 is the most prominent cervical vertebra when the neck is flexed, serving as the vertebra prominens. Question 6. The difference between “projection” and “position” in radiography is: A) Projection is the patient’s orientation; position is the X‑ray beam path. B) Projection is the X‑ray beam path; position is the patient’s orientation. C) Both terms are interchangeable. D) Projection refers only to lateral views. Answer: B
Answer: D Explanation: The Navicular or Stecher view uses a 15‑ 20 ° angulation to project the scaphoid without superimposition. Question 10. The AP projection of the hand is performed with the patient’s: A) Palmar side against the image receptor B) Dorsal side against the image receptor C) Lateral side against the image receptor D) Thumb positioned superiorly Answer: A Explanation: In an AP hand view, the palmar surface contacts the image receptor, allowing clear visualization of the metacarpals and phalanges. Question 11. For a finger radiograph, the central ray is centered on the: A) Distal interphalangeal joint B) Middle phalanx C) Proximal interphalangeal joint D) Metacarpophalangeal joint Answer: C Explanation: Standard finger imaging centers the CR at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint to include the entire digit. Question 12. In the Stecher method for scaphoid imaging, the wrist is positioned: A) Neutral, with the thumb up B) Supinated 15‑ 20 ° C) Pronation 15‑ 20 °
D) Flexed 30° Answer: B Explanation: The Stecher view requires supination of the wrist 15‑ 20 ° to align the scaphoid parallel to the image receptor. Question 13. The AP view of the elbow is taken with the arm: A) Flexed 90° B) Fully extended, forearm supinated C) Fully extended, forearm pronated D) Slightly abducted 15° Answer: B Explanation: The AP elbow view uses a fully extended arm with the forearm supinated to project the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints clearly. Question 14. The Jones method for an acute flexion elbow view is indicated when: A) The patient cannot extend the elbow due to pain B) There is a suspected radial head fracture C) The patient has a dislocated shoulder D) The elbow is hyper‑extended Answer: A Explanation: The Jones method flexes the elbow to 90° in a supine patient who cannot tolerate full extension, reducing pain while still visualizing the joint. Question 15. The Grashey view of the shoulder is obtained by: A) Internally rotating the humerus 30° B) Externally rotating the humerus 30°
B) Dorsal surface on the image receptor C) Lateral side on the image receptor D) Medial side on the image receptor Answer: B Explanation: The dorsoplantar view places the dorsal aspect of the foot on the receptor, allowing visualization of the metatarsals and phalanges. Question 19. The Mortise view of the ankle requires the foot to be internally rotated by: A) 5‑ 10 ° B) 10‑ 15 ° C) 15‑ 20 ° D) 25‑ 30 ° Answer: C Explanation: The Mortise view uses 15‑ 20 ° internal rotation to project the tibio‑talar joint space without overlap from the malleoli. Question 20. In a lateral calcaneus (axial) view, the central ray is directed at: A) The posterior calcaneal tuberosity B) The sustentaculum tali C) The anterior process of the calcaneus D) The lateral malleolus Answer: B Explanation: The axial calcaneus view centers the CR on the sustentaculum tali to visualize the posterior facet and tuberosity. Question 21. The AP knee view is taken with the knee:
A) Fully extended B) Flexed 20‑ 30 ° C) Flexed 45° D) Hyperextended Answer: A Explanation: The standard AP knee radiograph requires the knee to be fully extended to align the femoral condyles and tibial plateau. Question 22. The lateral knee view is performed with the knee flexed to: A) 0° (full extension) B) 10° C) 20‑ 30 ° D) 45° Answer: C Explanation: Flexing the knee 20‑ 30 ° opens the joint space, providing a clearer view of the intercondylar notch and patellofemoral articulation. Question 23. The Settegast (Sunrise) view of the patella is obtained by: A) 30° caudal angulation, foot supinated B) 30° cranial angulation, foot pronated C) 15° caudal angulation, foot neutral D) 45° caudal angulation, foot dorsiflexed Answer: A Explanation: The Sunrise view uses a 30° caudal angulation with the patient’s foot supinated to project the patellofemoral joint like a sunrise.
Question 27. The cross‑table lateral (Danelius‑Miller) view of the hip is most useful for: A) Detecting posterior hip dislocation in trauma patients who cannot be moved B) Evaluating femoral neck fractures in a standing patient C) Visualizing the acetabular roof in a supine position D) Assessing the ilio‑pectineal line Answer: A Explanation: The cross‑table lateral is performed with the patient supine; the CR is angled across the table, allowing visualization of posterior hip structures without moving the patient. Question 28. In a portable AP chest radiograph (supine), the heart size appears: A) Larger than in an erect PA B) Smaller than in an erect PA C) Unchanged D) Variable, depending on exposure factors Answer: A Explanation: Supine AP images cause magnification of the heart due to increased source‑to‑image distance and cardiac rotation, often appearing larger. Question 29. The lordotic view of the chest is primarily performed to assess: A) Lower lobes of the lungs B) Cardiac silhouette C) Lung apices and clavicles D) Diaphragmatic domes Answer: C
Explanation: The lordotic (PA) view uses a 15‑ 20 ° cephalad angulation to project the apices of the lungs above the clavicles, reducing superimposition. Question 30. A KUB radiograph is performed with the patient in which position? A) Standing, erect AP B) Supine AP C) Prone AP D) Lateral decubitus Answer: B Explanation: The KUB (Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder) study is taken with the patient supine, AP projection to include the abdomen from the diaphragm to the pubic symphysis. Question 31. In an upright abdominal radiograph, the presence of air under the diaphragm indicates: A) Normal bowel gas B) Small‑bowel obstruction C) Free intraperitoneal air (pneumoperitoneum) D) Ascites Answer: C Explanation: Air rises to the highest point when the patient is upright; air under the diaphragm is a classic sign of pneumoperitoneum. Question 32. The left lateral decubitus abdominal view is used to detect: A) Gallstones B) Free air (pneumoperitoneum) C) Renal calculi
B] Upper thoracic vertebrae (T1‑T3) C] Cervicothoracic junction (C7‑T1) D] Scapular positioning Answer: C Explanation: The swimmer’s lateral projects the cervicothoracic junction, which is difficult to visualize on standard lateral cervical images. Question 36. For a lumbar spine AP view, the patient’s feet should be positioned: A] Parallel, forward pointing B] Internally rotated 15‑ 20 ° C] Externally rotated 15‑ 20 ° D] One foot forward, one back (frog‑leg) Answer: C Explanation: External rotation of the feet (15‑ 20 °) aligns the lumbar vertebral bodies parallel to the image receptor, reducing spinous process foreshortening. Question 37. The “Scotty Dog” sign is seen on which lumbar spine projection? A] AP B] Lateral C] Oblique D] Axial Answer: C Explanation: The oblique lumbar view produces the “Scotty Dog” silhouette; the neck of the dog corresponds to the pars interarticularis, useful for detecting spondylolysis. Question 38. In a sacral AP axial view, the central ray is angled:
A] 0° (perpendicular) B] 15° cephalad C] 15° caudad D] 30° oblique Answer: B Explanation: The sacral AP axial view uses a 15° cephalad angulation to project the sacral ala without superimposition. Question 39. The AP pelvis view requires the feet to be internally rotated by: A] 0° (parallel) B] 5‑ 10 ° C] 15‑ 20 ° D] 30 ‑ 45 ° Answer: C Explanation: Internally rotating the feet 15‑ 20 ° aligns the pelvic inlet parallel to the image receptor, reducing overlap of the obturator foramina. Question 40. The “two views 90° apart” rule for trauma radiography means: A] Obtain PA and lateral views of every body part B] Obtain any two projections that are perpendicular to each other to detect fractures C] Use only AP and oblique views for extremities D] Perform a CT scan if two views are insufficient Answer: B Explanation: In trauma, acquiring two orthogonal (90° apart) projections improves detection of fractures that may be hidden in a single view.
Explanation: To maintain sterility, the C‑arm’s components are kept outside the sterile field; only the image receptor may be draped if needed. Question 44. Which artifact is caused by patient movement during exposure? A] Grid lines B] Motion blur C] Ring artifact D] Beam hardening Answer: B Explanation: Patient motion during the exposure creates a blurred image, known as motion artifact. Question 45. Foreshortening of a bone on a radiograph is most commonly due to: A] Incorrect exposure factors B] Central ray angulation toward the part C] Central ray angulation away from the part D] Use of a grid Answer: C Explanation: When the CR is angled away from the part, the projected length shortens, causing foreshortening. Question 46. Elongation of a structure on an image occurs when: A] The central ray is perpendicular to the part B] The central ray is angled toward the part C] The image receptor is placed too far from the part D] The patient is rotated 90° Answer: B
Explanation: Angling the CR toward the part lengthens the projected image, resulting in elongation. Question 47. In a lateral cervical spine view, the spinous processes appear: A] Overlapping each other B] In a straight line, one behind the other C] As a “V” shape D] Not visible at all Answer: B Explanation: Proper positioning aligns the cervical spine so that the spinous processes are superimposed, indicating no rotation. Question 48. The presence of clavicular “step-off” on a PA chest radiograph suggests: A] Normal anatomy B] Clavicle fracture C] Rib fracture D] Scapular dysplasia Answer: B Explanation: A step-off indicates discontinuity of the cortical outline, typical of a clavicular fracture. Question 49. When performing a lateral thoracic decubitus view for suspected pneumothorax, the patient should be positioned: A] Left side down, arms above head B] Right side down, arms at side C] Supine with arms raised D] Prone with arms extended forward Answer: A
B] Large‑bowel obstruction C] Ascites D] Hepatomegaly Answer: B Explanation: An air‑fluid level in the abdomen on an upright film suggests a large‑bowel obstruction where gas and fluid separate under gravity. Question 53. The AP view of the humerus includes the: A] Glenoid cavity only B] Entire humeral shaft and distal condyles C] Proximal humerus and shoulder joint D] Elbow joint only Answer: C Explanation: The AP humerus view is centered on the proximal humerus, displaying the head, neck, and glenoid articulation. Question 54. In an oblique wrist view (45°), which carpal bone is best visualized? A] Scaphoid B] Lunate C] Triquetrum D] Pisiform Answer: C Explanation: The 45° oblique wrist projection highlights the triquetrum by separating it from the overlapping lunate and scaphoid. Question 55. The “frog‑leg” lateral hip view requires the hip to be positioned in:
A] 20° adduction, 30° external rotation B] 45° abduction, 45° external rotation C] 90° flexion, neutral rotation D] Full extension, internal rotation Answer: B Explanation: The frog‑leg position abducts the hip 45° and externally rotates it 45°, spreading the femoral neck for clear lateral imaging. Question 56. The central ray for a lumbar spine lateral view is directed at the: A] L3–L4 interspace B] L4–L5 interspace C] L2 vertebral body D] Sacral hiatus Answer: B Explanation: The lumbar lateral view commonly targets the L4–L5 interspace to include the entire lumbar spine within the field. Question 57. When imaging a patient with a suspected clavicular fracture, the recommended CR angle is: A] 0° (perpendicular) B] 15° caudad C] 15° cephalad D] 30° oblique Answer: C Explanation: A cephalad angulation (15‑ 30 °) projects the clavicle away from the ribs, reducing superimposition and improving fracture detection.
