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Prova test ingresso medicina, Esercizi di Fisica

Fisica

Prova test ingresso medicina 2017

Tipologia: Esercizi

2018/2019

Caricato il 21/12/2019

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Test IMAT AA 2017/2018
Risposte rimescolate
1) The recently-appointed captain of the national football team has been publicly accused of adultery with
several women, including the girlfriend of a former teammate. The newspapers have made a great deal of his
extramarital activities and it has become a scandal. His behaviour has led him to be the subject of crude jokes.
He has now been suspended from his duties. It is right that he has been removed from his position so that the
team can start to pull together and have the best possible chance of winning the World Cup. Which one of the
following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?
A) The national team will not win the World Cup
B) This new captain should not have been appointed.
C) The new captain’s actions have weakened team morale
D) If the new captain is fired, the national team will win the World Cup.
E) Newspapers have the right to report on people’s personal lives.
2) E-cigarettes, which provide nicotine without cigarette smoke, have been praised by health campaigners.
Research has suggested that success rates for quitting smoking are higher with e-cigarettes than with other
methods. However, rather than tackling their nicotine addiction, e-cigarette users have simply replaced one
habit with another. It is true that cigarette smoke contains many hazardous compounds, and also that quitting
smoking increases life expectancy and reduces the risk of many health problems. But nicotine also has its
dangers: it has been associated with a range of conditions that we do not fully understand, and research has
yet to establish the long-term effects of nicotine use outside of cigarette smoke. Which one of the following is
a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?
A) E-cigarettes are just as harmful as traditional cigarettes
B) Not everyone is able to give up smoking without nicotine replacement
C) Using nicotine patches is an ineffective way to give up smoking.
D) People should not assume e-cigarettes are a safe alternative to traditional cigarettes
E) Smoking traditional cigarettes still poses a major risk to health.
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Test IMAT AA 2017/

Risposte rimescolate

  1. The recently-appointed captain of the national football team has been publicly accused of adultery with several women, including the girlfriend of a former teammate. The newspapers have made a great deal of his extramarital activities and it has become a scandal. His behaviour has led him to be the subject of crude jokes. He has now been suspended from his duties. It is right that he has been removed from his position so that the team can start to pull together and have the best possible chance of winning the World Cup. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument? A) The national team will not win the World Cup B) This new captain should not have been appointed. C) The new captain’s actions have weakened team morale D) If the new captain is fired, the national team will win the World Cup. E) Newspapers have the right to report on people’s personal lives.
  2. E-cigarettes, which provide nicotine without cigarette smoke, have been praised by health campaigners. Research has suggested that success rates for quitting smoking are higher with e-cigarettes than with other methods. However, rather than tackling their nicotine addiction, e-cigarette users have simply replaced one habit with another. It is true that cigarette smoke contains many hazardous compounds, and also that quitting smoking increases life expectancy and reduces the risk of many health problems. But nicotine also has its dangers: it has been associated with a range of conditions that we do not fully understand, and research has yet to establish the long-term effects of nicotine use outside of cigarette smoke. Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage? A) E-cigarettes are just as harmful as traditional cigarettes B) Not everyone is able to give up smoking without nicotine replacement C) Using nicotine patches is an ineffective way to give up smoking. D) People should not assume e-cigarettes are a safe alternative to traditional cigarettes E) Smoking traditional cigarettes still poses a major risk to health.

3 Many children from poor backgrounds would benefit from wearing spectacles but do not have them. Sometimes parents are not aware of their children’s poor eyesight, but most often they suffer from financial constraints. The government should provide free glasses to poor children with eyesight problems. A recent study of underprivileged students with poor vision demonstrated that those who were given free glasses enjoyed an improvement in test scores equivalent to almost a year of additional schooling. Using the most conservative estimate of the impact of schooling on salary, this would significantly increase an average school- leaver’s annual income and tax contributions, and by far more than the cost of a pair of glasses. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument? A) The government should help financially with the provision of children’s glasses. B) Exam marking should take into account any disabilities the student might have. C) Children from poor backgrounds with bad eyesight should be given additional schooling. D) Parents should be educated about potential eyesight problems in children. E) People’s salaries should reflect whether or not they had eyesight problems during school.

  1. It is common practice to look online for a loan or a mortgage. This has led to a large number of ‘comparison websites’ where you type in your details and they search a range of companies for you based on these details. Night after night, there are adverts on television emphasising how much time and money comparison sites could save you. The experience of one user should make you consider the wisdom of using such sites. She gave her details to a comparison website and received no useful results. However, for weeks afterwards she was bombarded with emails and phone calls from companies she had never heard of. Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument? A) It attacks the website and not what the company does. B) It draws a conclusion based on one example of how a company operates C) It assumes everyone uses comparison websites. D) It assumes that comparison websites save customers money. E) It assumes using the internet is the only way to get a loan. 5)Though relatively few people know it by name, palm oil is found in over fifty per cent of processed supermarket goods, from soaps to snacks. This vegetable oil, which is taken from the fruit of the oil palm tree, causes a great deal of environmental concern. The clearing of tropical forests to grow oil palm plantations threatens the survival of orangutans and other endangered species. The land conversion often happens on carbon rich peat soils in a process which releases significant greenhouse gas emissions. Yet even some environmental organisations warn that alternative vegetable oil crops may require much larger areas of forest to be converted to agricultural land. Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage? A) If farmers stopped clearing tropical forests for oil palm plantations, endangered orangutan populations would recover B) The environmental risks associated with oil palm plantations are not well understood in tropical countries. C) A ban on palm oil alone would not solve all of the environmental problems associated with vegetable oil production. D) To produce the most profitable crops, oil palm plantations must be grown on carbon rich peat soils. E) There is no motivation for manufacturers to stop using palm oil in their products.
  1. Over the last ten years there has been a huge increase in the number of television programmes involving the work of forensic scientists. This media attention has been matched by a massive increase in the number of courses and qualifications available in this field. Although this new attention has led to greater public awareness, it has not led to the creation of more jobs in this field. The work of forensics professionals has continued unchanged. Therefore, those who choose to study these courses will find that there is fierce competition for difficult and unpleasant work. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument? A) New technologies have brought about a decrease in the number of forensics staff required in laboratories. B) Many students of forensic science go on to pursue careers in other areas. C) Salaries for forensic scientists compare well with those in other scientific fields. D) The number of university courses in forensic science has grown at an unprecedented rate. E) Each year around 1500 graduates in forensic science compete for 200 jobs in the sector.
  2. Many banks encourage their customers to buy insurance against credit card fraud and other kinds of ‘identity theft’. But the banks are really protecting themselves. Customers who are victims of credit card fraud suffer inconvenience but they are unlikely to lose money: the costs of any fraudulent transactions are met by the bank. It is therefore unnecessary for customers to spend money on additional insurance services. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument? A) The banks’ additional insurance services protect only against the costs of fraudulent credit card transactions. B) Credit card fraud is a less serious problem than many people believe. C) People who are worried about identity theft worry only about their credit cards. D) Customers whose identities have been stolen would have benefited from the banks’ additional insurance services. E) Additional insurance services are widely available for credit card customers.
  1. I recently received a publications list and order form. I want to order seven items from the list. However, I noticed that the structure of the postage and packaging charges was very strange, as shown in the table below: I have decided that I will ask them to pack my order in the number of parcels that will have the lowest postal charge. What is the lowest postal charge for my seven items? A) £2.4 5 B) £1. C) £3. 30 D) £2.2 5 E) £2. 12 ) Luke walks his puppy to a nearby park and lets the puppy off the lead. As Luke starts walking along the path, the puppy runs on ahead, until it has gone 100 metres. The puppy then turns and runs back to Luke, who in that time has walked 50 metres. The puppy then goes on ahead again, turns after running 100 metres and runs back to Luke who has now walked another 50 metres. This routine continues until Luke has walked 1 km. If it takes 12 minutes for Luke to walk 1 km in the park, what is the puppy’s average running speed during the same time? A) 10 km / h B) 12 km / h C) 15 km / h D) 5 km / h E) 14 km / h
  1. The table below shows calories burned depending on a person’s weight: Five friends choose the following exercise routine: Which one of the five friends burns the most calories A) Holly B) Harry C) Josie D) Jessie E) Paul
  1. I leave Victoria at 8:07 and arrive at Three Bridges at 8:41. I need to catch a train from Three Bridges at 8: to either Arundel or Chichester. I want to spend at least four hours in Chichester and four hours in Arundel. I have no preference in which order I will visit the towns. I then need to return to Victoria. The tables below show extracts from the train timetables: What is the earliest possible time I can arrive back at Victoria? A) 20: B) 18: C) 19: D) 19: E) 19:
  1. Alex’s bedroom is rectangular. If you stand at the doorway looking into the room, there is a square wardrobe on your right hand side in the corner. The bed is on the same side of the room as the wardrobe and is over half the length of the room. There is a desk along the other wall. Which one of these aerial views is the view of Alex’s bedroom? A) B) C) D) E)
  1. The distance from Ardale to Banby is 16 km and from Banby to Carston is a further 8 km in the same direction.David leaves Ardale at 11.00 and runs for an hour at 6 km / h. He rests for 20 minutes and then completes the rest of the distance to Banby at an average speed of 10 km / h. He chats with some friends in Banby for 20 minutes and then borrows a bicycle from one of them and cycles to Carston at an average speed of 16 km / h. David leaves Carston at 15.00 and cycles back over his route, arriving home at 15.50. Which one of the following correctly shows David’s distance from Ardale as a function of time? A) B) C) D) E)
  1. Which one of the following introduced the metaphor of the ‘invisible hand’ in relation to a free trade economy? A) Thomas Robert Malthus B) Karl Marx C) David Ricardo D) Vilfredo Pareto E) Adam Smith
  2. Which of the following components of a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) contain peptide bonds?
  1. capsid
  2. envelope
  3. reverse transcriptase A) 3 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 1, 2 and 3
  1. Which one of the following most accurately describes the structure of a human haemoglobin molecule that can bind four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin? A) It has a primary, tertiary and quaternary structure only. B) It has a primary, secondary and tertiary structure only. C) It has a primary, secondary and quaternary structure only. D) It has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure E) It has a primary and secondary structure only.
  2. A short section of the DNA strand that codes for a protein has the sequence: CAT TGG GCA TCG Which of the following statements about this section of the sequence is/are correct?
  1. There are a total of 29 hydrogen bonds between this section of DNA and its complementary strand.
  2. There are 12 phosphodiester bonds present within this section of DNA.
  3. The unmutated tRNA molecules used to translate this sequence contain a total of 3 uracil bases. A) 3 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 2 and 3 only
  1. The following structures are found in plant cells:
  1. cell wall
  2. cell membrane
  3. nucleolus
  4. mitochondrion Which cell structures might contain molecules containing carbohydrate monomers? A) 4 only B) 1,2,3 and 4 C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 only E) 1 and 4only
  1. Two adjacent healthy human cells, X and Y, contain the two molecules Q and R. The concentration of molecule Q in cell X is 4 arbitrary units (a.u.) and in cell Y it is 6 a.u. The concentration of molecule R in both cell X and cell Y is 7 a.u. Which of the following statements about the net movement of ONLY molecules Q and R between cells X and Y could be correct?
  1. 1.Molecules of Q move by facilitated diffusion from cell X.
  2. 2.Molecules of Q move by active transport into cell Y.
  3. 3.Molecules of R move into and out of both cell X and cell Y. A) 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 1, 2 and 3
  1. Four students, 1, 2, 3 and 4, recorded different structures that they thought were found in a healthy animal kidney cell and a typical bacterial cell. Which students gave totally correct answers? A) students 1 and 2 only B) students 2 and 4 only C) students 2 and 3 only D) students 1 and 4 only E) students 1, 2, 3 and 4

32 ) Which of the following occurs in a healthy human testis cell before it undergoes meiosis?

  1. DNA content of the nucleus doubles
  2. spindle fibres form the spindle
  3. crossing over A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 1, 2 and 3
  1. A mother and a father, neither of whom has cystic fibrosis, conceive a child who has the condition. What is the likelihood that the same parents will have another child who is a boy without cystic fibrosis? A) 1 in 8 B) 1 in 2 C) 1 in 4 D) 3 in 8 E) 3 in 4
  2. Which one of the following statements about unmutated nucleic acids is correct? A) rRNA has anticodons which bind to tRNA. B) mRNA is made up of a single nucleotide with a codon of uracil, cytosine and guanine bases. C) tRNA is made up of one phosphate-sugar backbone and may have adenosine and thymine bases. D) Bases in DNA may form hydrogen bonds with uracil bases. E) Prokaryotic DNA is a single strand which forms a loop.
  3. Which combinations of DNA could be present in a transgenic organism?
  1. invertebrate animal DNA in mammal DNA
  2. prokaryotic DNA in plant DNA
  3. plant DNA in animal DNA A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 ,2 and 3 C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 2 only

36 ) Which of the following could be a consequence of a reduction in pituitary function in an otherwise healthy human?

  1. more urine produced in a male or female
  2. infertility in a female
  3. infertility in a male A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1 and 3 only E) 2 only
  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct for all enzyme inhibitors?
  1. They alter the shape of the active site.
  2. They denature the enzyme.
  3. They increase the activation energy of the reaction.
  4. They reduce the rate of the enzyme catalysed reaction. A) 3 only B) 1, 2 and 4 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 4 only E) 1, 2 and 3 only
  1. A person was admitted to hospital suffering from a loss of memory. Which part of the central nervous system is most likely to have been affected? A) medulla B) hypothalamus C) cerebellum D) cerebrum E) spinal cord
  2. Which of the following processes take place during the establishment of a resting potential in the axon of a healthy human neuron?
  1. active transport
  2. facilitated diffusion
  3. respiration A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1 and 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 2 only
  1. Which one of the following options gives the correct electron structure of the particle? A) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 B) 1 s^2 2s^2 2p^4 C) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^2 D) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^4 E) 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6
  2. The solubility of potassium nitrate in water increases with temperature. A saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 80 °C is cooled to 25 °C in a closed container. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. The mass of undissolved potassium nitrate will increase.
  2. The concentration of the potassium nitrate solution remains the same.
  3. The total mass of solvent present remains the same. A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 only D) 2 and 3 only E) 1, 2 and 3
  1. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the type of mixture and the most appropriate method used to separate the specified component from the mixture? A) gasoline/petrol from crude oil – heterogeneous; simple distillation B) chlorophyll from a solution of different plant pigments – homogeneous; chromatography C) red blood cells from blood – homogeneous; centrifuge D) salt from salt solution – homogeneous; paper filtration E) water from salt solution – heterogeneous; simple distillation
  2. In which one of the following reactions is the underlined species acting as an oxidising agent? A) Cl 2 + 2KBr→ 2KCl + Br 2 B) Zn+CuSO 4  ZnSO 4 +Br 2 C) 3CO+Fe 2 O 3  3CO 2 +2Fe D) H 2 SO 4 +2NaOH Na 2 SO 4 +2H 2 O E) 2Mg+O 2 2MgO
  1. In an experiment involving the reaction shown below, 150 cm^3 of F 2 reacts with 100 cm3 of Cl 2. 3F 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g) → 2Cl F 3 (g) On completion of the reaction, what is the final gaseous volume at the same temperature and pressure? A) 3 50 cm B) 2 00 cm C) 1 00 cm D) 250 cm E) 1 50 cm
  2. Which one of the following molecules is a structural isomer of methylcyclopentane? A) hexane B) cyclohexene C) 2 - methylpentane D) hex- 2 - ene E) 2,2-dimethylbutane
  3. Which one of the following statements about the four atoms/ions below is correct? A) B) C) D) E)
  4. Which one of the following samples of gases contains the most particles? All gases are at 0 °C and 1 atm pressure, when 1 mole of gas has a volume of 22.4 L. [Relative atomic mass, Ar: H = 1, He = 4, C = 12, O = 16, Cl = 35.5] A) 10.0 g of helium gas B) 66.0 g of carbon dioxide gas C) 6 4.0 g of oxygen gas D) 22.4 L of hydrogen gas E) 33.6 L of chlorine gas