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Material Type: Assignment; Class: Mathematical Statistics I; Subject: Statistics; University: University of Illinois - Urbana-Champaign; Term: Fall 2006;
Typology: Assignments
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Due Friday, September 29, 2006 You can turn it in in class, or to my office (116B IH) or mailbox in 101 IH, by 4PM.
There are also questions on Mallard.
(a) Show that the mgf of a double exponential is MX (t) = 1/(1 − t^2 ). [Break the integral into two parts according to the sign of x.] For which t is it finite?
Answer:
MX (t) = E[etX^ ] =
∫ (^) ∞ −∞
etx−|x|dx =
∫ (^0) −∞
etx+xdx +
∫ (^) ∞ 0
etx−xdx.
The first integral is ∫ (^0) −∞ etx+xdx =
∫ (^0) −∞ ex(1+t)dx =
1 + t ex(1+t)|^0 −∞ =
1 + t if 1 + t > 0.
The second is (^) ∫ (^) ∞
0
etx−xdx =
∫ (^) ∞ 0
e−x(1−t)dx =
1 − t
if 1 − t > 0 ,
as for the exponential. So the mgf is finite if both 1 + t > 0 and 1 − t > 0, i.e., if − 1 < t < 1. If so, then
MX (t) =
1 − t
1 + t
1 + t + 1 − t (1 − t)(1 + t)
1 − t^2
(b) Suppose U and V are independent Exponential(1), and let Y = U − V. Find the mgf of Y. What is the distribution of Y?
Answer: The mgf of an Exponential(1) is 1/(1 − t) if t < 1, hence
MY (t) = E[etY^ ] = E[et(U^ −V^ )] = E[etU^ ]E[e−tV^ ] =
1 − t
1 + t
1 − t^2
when t < 1 and −t < 1, i.e., when − 1 < t < 1. So Y is double exponential.
(c) The mean of a double exponential is 0 and the variance is 2. Suppose X 1 ,... , Xn are independent and identically distributed double exponentials, and let Wn be the standardized mean,
Wn =
2 /n
Show that the mgf of Wn is
Mn(t) =
(1 − 2 t^2 n )n^
Answer:
Mn(t) = E[etX/
2 /n] = E[e(t/
√ 2 n)(X 1 +···+Xn (^) ]
= MX 1 ( √t 2 n
) · · · MXn ( √t 2 n
= MXi ( t √ 2 n
)n
( 1 1 − (t/
2 n)^2
)n
( 1 1 − t^2 /(2n)
)n .
(d) What is the limit of Mn(t) as n → ∞? The limit is the mgf for what distribution?
Answer: The limit of (1 + z/n)n^ is ez^ , hence
Mn(t) =
( 1 1 − t^2 /(2n)
)n −→
e−t^2 /^2 = e (^12) t 2 .
That is the mgf of a N (0, 1).
f (u) = pu(1 − p), u ∈ U = { 0 , 1 , 2 ,.. .}.
Using the convolution formula, find the space and pmf of X = U + V.
Answer: The space of X is X = { 0 , 1 , 2 ,.. .}, too, and for x ∈ X , u goes from 0 to x, hence
fX (x) =
∑^ x u=
fU (u)fV (x−u) =
∑^ x u=
[pu(1−p)][px−u(1−p)] = px(1−p)^2
∑^ x u=
1 = (x+1)px(1−p)^2.
(a) Why does P [X ≤ x] = P [U 1 ≤ x,... , Un ≤ x]?
Answer: Because the largest of the Ui’s is less than or equal to x if and only if they are all less than or equal to x.