Download ACE Personal Trainer Manual. and more Exams Training and Development in PDF only on Docsity!
ACE Personal Trainer Manual
When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED? a. Long-term goals b. Outcome goals c. Negative goals d. Performance goals - c. Negative goals Setting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance. Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? - They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations While other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines for general exercise (e.g., "try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week"), few of them actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum. What is the primary purpose of a fitness certification? - To protect the public from harm The primary purpose of a certification is to protect the public from harm by assessing if the professional can perform the job in a safe and effective manner. Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of "scope of practice"? a. The legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide b. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace c. The setting in which the services can be provided d. Guidelines or parameters that must be followed - b. The code of ethics that must be adhered to while in the workplace A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines or parameters that must be followed. According the general scope of practice for fitness professionals, personal trainers can rehabilitate clients who are recovering from musculoskeletal injuries. a. True b. False - b. False
Personal trainers can design exercise programs once clients have been released from rehabilitation, but they cannot "rehabilitate" clients after injury. As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow _______________ of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. - 3 to 4 months As a general rule, ACE recommends that candidates allow three to four months of study time to adequately prepare for the ACE Personal Trainer Certification Exam. Diagnosing the cause of a client's lordosis posture and prescribing an exercise program to treat it is within a personal trainer's scope of practice. a. True b. False - False Fitness professionals must never "diagnose" a client's condition or "prescribe" any treatment. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE Certified Professionals must complete a minimum of _____ hours of continuing education credits and maintain a current certificate in _______________ and, if living in North America, automated external defibrillation. - 20; cardiopulmonary resuscitation ACE certifications are valid for two years from the date earned, expiring on the last day of the month. To renew certification for a new two-year cycle, ACE Certified Professionals must complete a minimum of 20 hours of continuing education credits (2.0 CECs) and maintain a current certificate in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and, if living in North America, proper use of an automated external defibrillator (AED). What should a personal trainer do if a client insists on using dietary supplements despite the trainer's assurance that his or her fitness goals can be met without them? - Refer the client to a registered dietitian or physician The personal trainer can help the client understand that fitness goals can be reached without supplements and that supplements can have negative and potentially harmful side effects. If a client insists on using dietary supplements, the personal trainer should refer the client to a qualified physician or registered dietitian for guidance. Which of the following is an appropriate response to a client who mentions being sore following a weekend tennis tournament? a. Recommending the use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications b. Recommending the use of a creatine supplement prior to his or her next tournament c. Providing deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness d. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected areas - d. Discussing the proper technique for icing the affected area
Activity history is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable. In supervised exercise programs, past program participation is the most reliable predictor of current participation. This relationship between past participation and current participation is consistent across gender, obesity, and coronary heart disease status. _______________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. - Perceived lack of time Perceived lack of time is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program. The perception of not having enough time to exercise is likely a reflection of not being interested in or enjoying the activity, or not being committed to the activity program. Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to adhere to a supervised physical- activity program? a. A highly motivator beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program b. An individual who perceives his health to be poor and had been encouraged by his doctor to exercise c. An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his family d. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health - d. A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health A belief in personal control over health outcomes is a consistent predictor of unsupervised exercise activity participation among healthy adults. Regarding the other options, the drop- out rate in vigorous-intensity exercise programs is almost twice as high as in moderate- intensity activity programs; those who perceive their health to be poor are unlikely to start or adhere to an activity program; and obese individuals are typically less active than normal- weight individuals, and are less likely to adhere to supervised exercise programs. Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior? a. Intrinsic motivation b. Self-efficacy c. Extrinsic motivation d. Locus of control - b. Self-efficacy Self-efficacy is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior. When developing SMART goals, which of the following types of goals should be AVOIDED?
a. Long-term goals b. Outcome goals c. Negative goals d. Performance goals - c. Negative goals Setting negative goals puts the focus on the behavior that should be avoided, not the behavior to be achieved. It is important that the client is thinking about achievement, not avoidance. What is the MOST important tool when dealing with a client who is at risk for relapse? a. Enhancing the client's assertiveness b. Developing a system of social support c. Planning ahead and being prepared d. Signing behavioral contracts - c. Planning ahead and being prepared The most important tool in dealing with a relapse is planning ahead and being prepared. Personal trainers should educate their clients about the potential occurrence of a relapse and prepare them in advance, so that they are able to get back on track with their activity programs soon after experiencing a relapse. Which of the following presents the four stages of the client-trainer relationship in their proper order? a. Investigation, planning, action, rapport b. Rapport, investigation, planning, action c. Rapport, planning, investigation, action d. Planning, rapport, investigation, action - b. Rapport, investigation, planning, action The four stages of the client-trainer relationship, in their proper order, are rapport, investigation, planning, and action. The rapport stage involves setting a foundation of mutual understanding and trust; the investigation stage involves reviewing the client's health and fitness data and history; the planning stage involves designing an exercise program in partnership with the client; and the action stage is when the client begins exercising. A loud, tense voice communicates confidence and professionalism when speaking to a new client. a. True b. False - False A loud, tense voice tends to make people nervous. Personal trainers should try to develop a voice that is firm and confident to communicate professionalism. Which of the following body positions may be interpreted by a client as aggressiveness on the part of the trainer?
d. Time-bound goal - b. Process goal A process goal is something that the client does, as opposed to something he or she achieves. Process goals are easy to track and provide short-term successes. Motivational interviewing is most commonly done during which stage of the client-trainer relationship? a. Rapport b. Investigation c. Planning d. Action - c. Planning Motivational interviewing refers to a method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior. Motivational interviewing may help clients feel the need to become more active and make a decision to start exercising. The three components of properly phrased feedback are BEST presented in what order? a. Correct errors; provide reinforcement for what was done well; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving c. Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors d. Correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving; provide reinforcement for what was done well - b. Provide reinforcement for what was done well; correct errors; motivate clients to continue practicing and improving Feedback should do three things:
- Provide reinforcement for what was done well
- Correct errors
- Motivate clients to continue practicing and improving The correcting of errors, which may be seen as the more "negative" point, should be sandwiched between reinforcement and motivation. Clients who are beginning the basics of a particular movement and are ready for specific feedback are in which stage of motor learning? a. Cognitive b. Associative c. Autonomous d. Affective - b. Associative In the associative stage of learning, clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback that will help them refine the motor skill.
During which stage of learning are clients performing motor skills effectively and naturally and the personal trainer doing less teaching and more monitoring? a. Cognitive b. Associative c. Autonomous d. Affective - c. Autonomous In the autonomous stage of learning, clients are performing motor skills effectively and naturally, and the personal trainer is doing less teaching and more monitoring. Which behavioral theory model is based on a prediction that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? a. Transtheoretical model of behavioral change b. Health belief model c. Self-efficacy model d. Stages of change model - b. Health belief model The health belief model predicts that people will engage in a health behavior (e.g., exercise) based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior. What is the most influential source of self-efficacy information? a. Past performance experience b. Imaginal experience c. Vicarious experience d. Emotional state - a. Past performance experience Past performance experience is the most influential source of self-efficacy information. Personal trainers should ask clients about their previous experiences with exercise, fitness facilities, and personal trainers. These previous experiences will strongly influence self- efficacy. People with low self-efficacy are more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are easy to accomplish. a. True b. False - a. True People with low self-efficacy will be more likely to choose non-challenging tasks that are non-threatening and easy to accomplish. They will display minimal effort to protect themselves in the face of a challenge—since failing when not working hard will be a lesser
c. Extinction d. Punishment - c. Extinction Extinction occurs when a positive stimulus that once followed a behavior is removed and the likelihood that the behavior will reoccur is decreased. A client leaves a gym bag on the front seat of his car each morning as a reminder to work out on his way home from work. What behavior-change strategy is he using? a. Stimulus control b. Observational learning c. Shaping d. Operant conditioning - a. Stimulus control Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. Simple and effective stimulus-control strategies may include choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout; having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts; and writing down workout times as part of a weekly schedule. When should behavior contracts and written agreements be revised or updated? a. Whenever the client has a relapse into inactivity b. After the client finishes his final purchased workout c. Never; they should be permanent documents d. When goals are met or programs are modified - d. When goals are met or programs are modified It is important that a written agreement is reviewed and adjusted at all program- modification points. Similarly, the behavior contract must be revised and updated as goals are met and programs are modified. After several months of working with a client, a personal trainer notes that the client's self- efficacy and ability levels have improved. How should this affect the amount of external feedback the trainer provides to the client? a. The trainer should increase the amount of external feedback b. The amount of feedback should not change c. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback d. The trainer should immediately stop providing external feedback - c. The trainer should taper the amount of external feedback As self-efficacy and ability build, trainers should taper off the amount of external feedback they provide, encouraging the clients to start providing feedback for themselves. Clients must learn to reinforce their own behaviors by providing internal encouragement, error correction, and even punishment.
The following list presents the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model in their proper order. Stability and mobility training Movement training Load training Performance training a. True b. False - a. True The proper order of the four phases of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is as follows: stability and mobility training, movement training, load training, and performance training. During what phase of the functional movement and resistance training component of the ACE IFT Model is the application of external resistance to functional movement patterns a primary focus? a. Stability and mobility training b. Movement training c. Load training d. Performance training - c. Load training The focus of phase 3, or load training, is on applying external resistances, or loads, to functional movement patterns. Phase 3 applies the traditional resistance-training methodology for endurance, hypertrophy (or strength-endurance), and strength to the client's particular goals. A client who is in the load-training phase of functional movement and resistance training will be working in the anaerobic-endurance training phase of cardiorespiratory training. a. True b. False - b. False While these two phases both represent phase 3 of their respective training components, it is important to understand that each client will progress from one phase to the next according to his or her unique needs, goals, and available time to commit to training. Many clients will be at different phases of the two training components based on their current health and fitness levels. It is essential that personal trainers conduct assessments of muscular strength and endurance before a new client begins a stability and mobility training program. a. True b. False - b. False
The full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of: Zone 1 (at or below VT1): 70-80% of training time Zone 2 (between VT1 and VT2): <10% of training time Zone 3 (at or above VT2): 10-20% of training time Clients working in the anaerobic-power training phase of the ACE IFT Model generally have goals related to _______________. a. Long-duration, moderate-intensity events requiring great endurance b. Long-duration events of a nearly constant speed and intensity c. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events d. Short-duration, high-intensity events requiring explosive power but little endurance - c. Short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events Clients working in this phase of cardiorespiratory training will be training for competition and have specific goals that relate to short-duration, high-intensity efforts during longer endurance events, such as speeding up to stay with a pack in road cycling. What is the most important goal when working with special-population clientele? a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes b. To move them through the various phases of the ACE IFT Model with the ultimate goal of improving fitness and performance c. To reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced, as this will improve their performance of activities of daily living d. To teach them the importance of daily exercise and continuing with their programs even during times of illness or discomfort - a. To provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes The most important goal with all clients is to provide them with initial positive experiences that promote adherence through easily achieved initial successes. The first priority when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client's goals and objectives. a. True b. False - b. False The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client's goals and objectives is secondary. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening? a. Identifying the absence or presence of known disease
b. Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change c. Identifying individuals with medical contraindications who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity d. Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs - b. Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following: Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs Which of these follow-up actions would be MOST appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or heart condition? In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity? a. Slowly and progressively start becoming more physically active b. Take part in a fitness appraisal before beginning exercise c. Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal d. Delay becoming much more physically active until feeling better - c. Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal If a person answers "yes" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q, he or she should talk with a doctor by phone or in person BEFORE starting to become much more physically active or BEFORE having a fitness appraisal. He or she should also tell the doctor about the PAR-Q and which questions were answered YES. Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease? a. Body mass index of 28 kg/m b. HDL cholesterol of 66 mg/dL c. Serum cholesterol of 195 mg/dL d. Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg - d. Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg Systolic blood pressure >140 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure >90 mmHg, confirmed by measurements on at least two separate occasions, is considered to be a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.
A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client? a. Normal b. Prehypertension c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension - b. Prehypertension Individuals are classified as prehypertensive when systolic blood pressure is 120-139 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure is 80-89 mmHg. Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is MOST accurate? a. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion. b. When using the 0-10 scale, an RPE of 6 corresponds to a heart rate of 60 bpm c. When using the 6-20 scale, an RPE of 11 is considered "somewhat hard" d. Most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale to be very easy and intuitive - a. When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion Regarding the other choices, the 0-10 RPE scale does not directly correspond with heart rate, an RPE of 11 on the 6-20 scale is considered "fairly light," and most deconditioned individuals find using the RPE scale difficult, as they find any level of exercise to be fairly hard. Which of the following is a non-correctible factor related to postural deviations? a. Side dominance b. Structural deviations c. Lack of joint stability d. Lack of joint mobility - b. Structural deviations The non-correctible factors related to postural deviations are as follows: Congenital conditions (e.g., scoliosis) Some pathologies (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) Structural deviations (e.g., tibial or femoral torsion, or femoral anteversion) Certain types of trauma (e.g., surgery, injury, or amputations) The other choices are correctible factors. When designing an exercise program for a beginning exerciser, it is best to focus on enhancing muscular strength before shifting the focus to improving the client's posture. a. True b. False - b. False
Given the propensity many individuals have toward poor posture, an initial focus of trainers should be to restore stability and mobility within the body and attempt to "straighten the body before strengthening it." Barring structural differences in the skeletal system, a pronated ankle _______________. a. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur b. Causes a lengthening of the calf muscles and limits ankle dorsiflexion c. Has little effect on the rest of the body's kinetic chain d. Moves the calcaneus into inversion, lifting the inside of the heel slightly off the ground - a. Forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotation of the femur Ankle pronation forces internal rotation at the knee and places additional stresses on some knee ligaments and the integrity of the joint itself. Additionally, as pronation tends to move the calcaneus into eversion, this may actually lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (moving the ankle into plantarflexion). In turn, this may tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion. The coupling relationship between tight ______________ and _______________ is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. a. Rectus abdominis; hamstrings b. Hip flexors; erector spinae c. Rectus abdominis; erector spinae d. Hip flexors; hamstrings - b. Hip flexors; erector spinae Tight or overdominant hip flexors are generally coupled with tight erector spinae muscles, producing an anterior pelvic tilt. This coupling relationship between tight hip flexors and erector spinae is defined as the lower-cross syndrome. A posterior pelvic tilt is caused by tightness in the rectus abdominis and hamstrings. When performing a shoulder screen and observing the client from a posterior view, a trainer notices an outward protrusion of the vertebral borders, but not the inferior angles, of the scapulae. What deviation is most likely being observed? a. Scapular protraction b. Kyphosis c. Sway-back posture d. Winged scapulae - a. Scapular protraction Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "scapular protraction," while noticeable protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "winged scapulae." During the hurdle step screen, you observe that the client exhibits an anterior tilt with a forward torso lean. What muscles should you suspect of being underactive or weak?
Apley's scratch test is usually performed in conjunction with which of the following pairs of tests? a. Sharpened Romberg test and stork-stand balance test b. Thomas test and passive straight-leg raise test c. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus d. Blood pressure cuff test and muscle-length test - c. Shoulder flexion-extension test and internal-external rotation test of the humerus Apley's scratch test involves multiple and simultaneous movements of the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joints in all three planes. This represents a challenge in evaluating shoulder movement and identifying movement limitations. To identify the source of the limitation, trainers can first perform various isolated movements in single planes to locate potentially problematic movements. Consequently, the scratch test is completed in conjunction with the shoulder flexion-extension test and the internal- external rotation test of the humerus. During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action? a. Monitor her progress closely and stop the test if her pain worsens b. Allow her to complete the test, as treadmill tests measure cardiorespiratory fitness, not muscular endurance c. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional d. Have her rest for a few minutes and rehydrate before continuing the test from the stopping point - c. Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional During the administration of any exercise test involving exertion, trainers must always be aware of identifiable signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional. These symptoms include: Onset of angina, chest pain, or angina-like symptoms Significant drop (>10 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure (SBP) despite an increase in exercise intensity Excessive rise in blood pressure (BP): SBP >250 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >115 mmHg Excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing (does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin Increased nervous system symptoms (e.g., ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope) Leg cramping or claudication Subject requests to stop Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue Failure of testing equipment _______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height.
a. BMI b. DEXA c. MRI d. NIR - a. BMI BMI, or body mass index, is an anthropometric measure that provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height. The other three options are forms of body-composition assessment.
- Which of these assessments measures a client's muscular endurance? a. Push-up test b. 1-RM bench-press test c. YMCA submaximal step test d. Standing long jump test - a. Push-up test The push-up test measures upper-body endurance, specifically of the pectoralis muscles, triceps, and anterior deltoids. Due to common variations in upper-body strength between men and women, women should be assessed while performing a modified push-up. What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a. 0. b. 0. c. 0. d. 0.95 - c. 0. A female client's health is considered at risk when her WHR is at or above 0.86. For men, that threshold is 0.95. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during maximal exercise. a. Blood oxygen levels b. Exhaled air c. Core temperature d. Caloric expenditure - b. Exhaled air VO2max, an excellent measure of cardiorespiratory efficiency, is an estimation of the body's ability to use oxygen for energy, and is closely related to the functional capacity of the heart. Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of exhaled air during maximal exercise. If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?
