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ALBERTA CYBERSECURITY ANALYST EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWER (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALE 2026 Q&A|INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1 – 10: Cybersecurity Fundamentals
1. What is the primary goal of cybersecurity? A. Increase system speed B. Ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability C. Reduce hardware cost D. Improve software design Answer: B Rationale: The CIA triad is the foundational objective of cybersecurity systems. 2. Confidentiality ensures: A. Data is always available B. Data is not modified C. Data is accessible only to authorized users D. Systems run faster Answer: C Rationale: Confidentiality prevents unauthorized access to sensitive data. 3. Integrity in cybersecurity means: A. Data is encrypted B. Data is accurate and unaltered C. Data is stored in cloud D. Data is compressed Answer: B Rationale: Integrity ensures data is not improperly modified. 4. Availability ensures: A. Data is hidden B. Data is always accessible when needed
C. Data is deleted D. Data is encrypted Answer: B Rationale: Availability ensures systems are operational for authorized users.
5. Which is a malicious software type? A. Firewall B. Antivirus C. Malware D. Router Answer: C Rationale: Malware is designed to damage or exploit systems. 6. Phishing is: A. Hardware attack B. Social engineering attack via fake messages C. Encryption method D. Firewall rule Answer: B Rationale: Phishing tricks users into revealing sensitive data. 7. A firewall is used to: A. Encrypt files B. Block unauthorized network traffic C. Speed up internet D. Store passwords Answer: B Rationale: Firewalls filter incoming and outgoing network traffic. 8. Antivirus software detects: A. Hardware failure B. Malware and viruses C. Network speed D. Email formatting
Answer: B Rationale: IP addresses uniquely identify devices on networks.
13. DNS translates: A. Emails B. Domain names to IP addresses C. Passwords D. Firewalls Answer: B Rationale: DNS resolves human-readable domains to IPs. 14. VPN is used to: A. Increase CPU speed B. Create secure encrypted connection C. Delete malware D. Block emails Answer: B Rationale: VPN encrypts traffic over public networks. 15. Packet sniffing is used for: A. Data encryption B. Monitoring network traffic C. Hardware repair D. Password creation Answer: B Rationale: Sniffers capture network packets for analysis. 16. A DoS attack aims to: A. Improve service B. Disrupt system availability C. Encrypt data D. Backup data Answer: B Rationale: Denial-of-Service overloads systems to make them unavailable.
17. Port 443 is used for: A. FTP B. HTTP C. HTTPS D. SMTP Answer: C Rationale: HTTPS uses port 443 for secure web communication. 18. NAT is used to: A. Encrypt files B. Translate private IPs to public IPs C. Block malware D. Store logs Answer: B Rationale: Network Address Translation hides internal networks. 19. A MAC address is: A. Software key B. Hardware identifier C. Password D. Firewall rule Answer: B Rationale: MAC is a unique hardware network identifier. 20. SSL/TLS is used for: A. File compression B. Secure communication C. Malware scanning D. Hardware control Answer: B Rationale: SSL/TLS encrypts data in transit. 21 – 30: Threats & Attacks
B. Databases C. CPUs D. Monitors Answer: B Rationale: It manipulates database queries.
26. Brute force attack involves: A. Guessing passwords repeatedly B. Encrypting files C. Blocking ports D. Installing updates Answer: A Rationale: It tries all possible password combinations. 27. Phishing emails often contain: A. Verified certificates B. Fake links C. System updates D. Antivirus tools Answer: B Rationale: Fake links trick users into revealing data. 28. Botnet is: A. Antivirus network B. Network of infected devices C. Secure server D. Encryption system Answer: B Rationale: Botnets are controlled malware-infected devices. 29. MITM attack means: A. Machine transfer method B. Man-in-the-middle interception C. Malware installation tool
D. Memory testing mode Answer: B Rationale: Attacker intercepts communication between parties.
30. Keylogger records: A. Network speed B. Keystrokes C. CPU temperature D. File size Answer: B Rationale: It captures user keyboard input. **31 – 40: Cryptography
- Encryption is used to:** A. Delete data B. Protect data confidentiality C. Increase bandwidth D. Block hardware Answer: B Rationale: Encryption secures data from unauthorized access. 32. Symmetric encryption uses: A. Two keys B. One shared key C. No key D. Public key only Answer: B Rationale: Same key is used for encryption and decryption. 33. Asymmetric encryption uses: A. One key B. Public and private keys C. No keys
Answer: B Rationale: It verifies sender identity and ensures data integrity.
38. Public key is used for: A. Decryption only B. Encryption or verification C. File storage D. Firewall configuration Answer: B Rationale: Public key encrypts data or verifies signatures. 39. Private key is used for: A. Encryption B. Decryption or signing C. Internet browsing D. Logging Answer: B Rationale: Private key is kept secret for decryption/signing. 40. Hashing is used to verify: A. Speed B. Integrity C. Storage size D. CPU usage Answer: B Rationale: Hash ensures data has not been altered. **41 – 50: Network Security
- A proxy server acts as:** A. Malware detector B. Intermediary between user and internet C. Router replacement D. Antivirus engine
Answer: B Rationale: Proxy hides internal IPs and filters traffic.
42. Port scanning is used to: A. Improve bandwidth B. Discover open ports C. Encrypt traffic D. Backup data Answer: B Rationale: Attackers identify vulnerable services. 43. UDP is: A. Connection-oriented B. Connectionless protocol C. Encryption protocol D. Firewall type Answer: B Rationale: UDP sends data without establishing connection. 44. TCP ensures: A. Faster but unreliable delivery B. Reliable data transmission C. No error checking D. No sequencing Answer: B Rationale: TCP guarantees delivery and order. 45. HTTPS uses: A. No encryption B. TLS/SSL encryption C. Bluetooth D. FTP Answer: B Rationale: HTTPS secures web communication.
50. DMZ in networking is: A. Secure internal zone B. Isolated public-facing network zone C. Encrypted storage D. Backup system Answer: B Rationale: DMZ separates internal network from internet. **51 – 60: Cyber Threats & Attacks
- Spyware is used to:** A. Improve speed B. Collect user data secretly C. Encrypt files D. Block ads Answer: B Rationale: Spyware monitors user activity. 52. Adware primarily: A. Steals passwords B. Displays unwanted ads C. Encrypts files D. Destroys hardware Answer: B Rationale: Adware generates advertisements. 53. Rootkit is designed to: A. Improve OS performance B. Hide malicious activity C. Backup files D. Scan networks Answer: B Rationale: Rootkits conceal attacker presence.
54. Credential stuffing uses: A. New passwords B. Stolen credentials C. Encryption keys D. Hardware tokens Answer: B Rationale: Reuses leaked username/password combos. 55. Replay attack involves: A. Re-sending valid data packets B. Encrypting files C. Deleting logs D. Installing antivirus Answer: A Rationale: Attackers resend captured transmissions. 56. Eavesdropping is: A. Hardware failure B. Listening to private communication C. File backup D. Encryption method Answer: B Rationale: Unauthorized interception of communication. 57. Malware spread via USB is called: A. Network worm B. Removable media attack C. Cloud attack D. SQL injection Answer: B Rationale: Physical devices spread infection. 58. Logic bomb activates when: A. System is idle
C. Increase traffic D. Delete logs Answer: B Rationale: Reduces impact of security incidents.
63. Triage in cybersecurity means: A. Ignoring alerts B. Prioritizing incidents C. Encrypting logs D. Installing patches Answer: B Rationale: Determines severity and urgency. 64. Threat hunting is: A. Passive monitoring B. Proactive attack searching C. Hardware repair D. Backup creation Answer: B Rationale: Actively searches for hidden threats. 65. IOC stands for: A. Internet Operational Code B. Indicator of Compromise C. Internal Open Control D. Input Output Channel Answer: B Rationale: Evidence of breach activity. 66. Log correlation helps to: A. Speed CPU B. Detect attack patterns C. Encrypt files D. Store backups
Answer: B Rationale: Links events to identify threats.
67. Security alert fatigue occurs when: A. Alerts are ignored due to overload B. System crashes C. Encryption fails D. Firewall blocks traffic Answer: A Rationale: Too many alerts reduce response effectiveness. 68. Endpoint detection tools monitor: A. Cloud storage only B. Devices for threats C. Email servers only D. Network cables Answer: B Rationale: Protects endpoints like laptops. 69. A playbook in SOC is: A. Gaming tool B. Incident response guide C. Encryption method D. Firewall type Answer: B Rationale: Standard response procedures. 70. Threat intelligence provides: A. Software updates B. Attack data and trends C. Hardware upgrades D. Password storage Answer: B Rationale: Helps predict and prevent attacks.
75. SaaS example is: A. Physical server B. Google Workspace C. Router D. Firewall Answer: B Rationale: Software delivered via cloud. 76. IaaS provides: A. Applications only B. Virtual infrastructure C. Antivirus D. Emails only Answer: B Rationale: Infrastructure as a Service. 77. PaaS is used for: A. Physical hardware B. Application development platforms C. Password storage D. Network cables Answer: B Rationale: Platform for developers. 78. Zero Trust architecture assumes: A. All users trusted B. No implicit trust C. Only admins trusted D. Internet is safe Answer: B Rationale: Always verify access. 79. Data loss prevention (DLP) prevents: A. CPU failure
B. Sensitive data leakage C. Software updates D. Network speed loss Answer: B Rationale: Blocks unauthorized data transfer.
80. Cybersecurity objective ultimately is to: A. Increase hacking B. Protect systems and data C. Reduce internet use D. Remove encryption Answer: B Rationale: Core goal is protecting digital assets.
