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Question 1. Which of the following statements best reflects the Agile Manifesto’s value “Individuals and interactions over processes and tools”? A) Documentation should be minimized in favor of rapid coding. B) Teams should prioritize face‑to‑face communication to solve problems. C) Automated testing replaces the need for collaboration. D) Process adherence is more important than meeting the customer’s needs. Answer: B Explanation: The first Agile value emphasizes that direct communication and collaboration among people are more valuable than relying solely on prescribed processes or tools. Question 2. In Scrum, who is primarily responsible for ensuring that the Definition of Done is understood and applied to each Increment? A) Product Owner B) Scrum Master C) Developers D) Stakeholders Answer: C Explanation: Developers own the technical work and must apply the Definition of Done to every piece of work they deliver. Question 3. Which pillar of empiricism is most directly addressed by a Daily Scrum? A) Transparency B) Inspection C) Adaptation D) All of the above Answer: B
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Explanation: The Daily Scrum provides a short, regular inspection of progress toward the Sprint Goal, allowing the team to adjust daily. Question 4. During Sprint Planning, what is the primary output of the “What can be done this Sprint?” part? A) The Product Backlog B) The Sprint Goal C) The Sprint Backlog D) The Definition of Done Answer: C Explanation: The team selects Product Backlog items and creates the Sprint Backlog, which details the work they forecast to complete. Question 5. Which Scrum artifact provides the single source of truth for the work that will be delivered in a product? A) Sprint Backlog B) Increment C) Product Backlog D) Definition of Done Answer: C Explanation: The Product Backlog is the ordered list of everything needed in the product, serving as the single source of truth. Question 6. In the context of Agile architecture, what does “emergent architecture” mean? A) Designing the entire system up front before any code is written.
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Explanation: The Single Responsibility Principle (SRP) mandates that a class should have only one responsibility, i.e., one reason to change. Question 9. What is the main risk of accruing technical debt without addressing it? A) Faster delivery of features B) Decreased team morale C) Reduced velocity over time due to increased maintenance effort D) Improved code readability Answer: C Explanation: Technical debt adds hidden work, causing slower future development and lower velocity as the team spends more time fixing issues. Question 10. Which practice best supports collective code ownership? A) Assigning each developer a specific module to maintain exclusively. B) Allowing any developer to modify any part of the codebase after a peer review. C) Restricting commits to senior developers only. D) Using a “code freeze” period each sprint. Answer: B Explanation: Collective ownership means any developer can change any code, fostering shared responsibility and reducing silos. Question 11. In Test‑Driven Development, what is the correct order of the Red‑Green‑Refactor cycle? A) Write failing test → Write code to pass test → Refactor code B) Write code → Write test → Refactor code C) Refactor code → Write failing test → Write code to pass test
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D) Write test → Refactor code → Write passing test Answer: A Explanation: TDD starts with a failing test (Red), then minimal code to make it pass (Green), followed by refactoring while keeping tests green. Question 12. Which type of unit test focuses on the state of an object after an operation? A) Interaction‑based test B) State‑based test C) Performance test D) Integration test Answer: B Explanation: State‑based tests assert the resulting state of the system under test, rather than its interactions with collaborators. Question 13. When should a mock be used in a unit test? A) To replace the system under test. B) To verify that a collaborator was called with expected arguments. C) To improve test execution speed by avoiding any assertions. D) To test database queries directly. Answer: B Explanation: Mocks are test doubles that record interactions, allowing verification that collaborators were invoked correctly. Question 14. Acceptance Test‑Driven Development (ATDD) primarily aims to: A) Reduce the number of unit tests. B) Define automated acceptance criteria before development begins.
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Question 17. When dealing with legacy (brownfield) code, the first step toward safe refactoring is: A) Rewrite the entire codebase from scratch. B) Add unit tests that capture current behavior. C) Deploy directly to production to see failures. D) Remove all comments to reduce clutter. Answer: B Explanation: Adding tests that verify existing behavior creates a safety net before changing the code. Question 18. Which Continuous Integration (CI) practice helps ensure that the build is always in a potentially shippable state? A) Merging large feature branches only at release time. B) Running automated tests on every commit. C) Delaying builds until the end of the sprint. D) Using manual deployment scripts. Answer: B Explanation: Executing automated tests on each commit guarantees that new changes do not break the build. Question 19. In a CI pipeline, what is the purpose of a “self‑testing build”? A) To compile code without running any tests. B) To automatically execute unit, integration, and acceptance tests after compilation. C) To generate documentation only. D) To trigger a manual code review. Answer: B
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Explanation: A self‑testing build compiles the code and runs the full suite of automated tests, providing immediate feedback. Question 20. Which configuration‑management technique helps avoid “environment drift” across development, testing, and production? A) Hard‑coding connection strings in source code. B) Storing environment‑specific settings in version‑controlled configuration files. C) Using separate codebases for each environment. D) Manually editing server settings before each deployment. Answer: B Explanation: Version‑controlled configuration files ensure that environment settings are reproducible and tracked. Question 21. What is a primary disadvantage of long‑lived feature branches in a Scrum team? A) They increase the number of daily stand‑ups. B) They cause integration conflicts and reduce transparency. C) They speed up the release cycle. D) They eliminate the need for a Definition of Done. Answer: B Explanation: Long‑lived branches diverge from the main line, leading to merge conflicts and making it harder to see the current state of the product. Question 22. Pair programming can be classified as “Ping‑Pong” when: A) One developer writes a test and the other writes the production code to pass it. B) Both developers simultaneously type the same code.
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Question 25. In relative estimation, why are Story Points preferred over absolute time estimates? A) They provide exact dates for delivery. B) They capture effort, complexity, and risk without being tied to individual velocity. C) They require no discussion among the team. D) They eliminate the need for a Definition of Done. Answer: B Explanation: Story Points express relative size, considering complexity and risk, and are independent of any single developer’s speed. Question 26. Which of the following best describes the Scrum value “Courage”? A) The willingness to work overtime to meet a deadline. B) Speaking up about impediments and challenging the status quo. C) Avoiding conflict at all costs. D) Relying solely on the Scrum Master to solve problems. Answer: B Explanation: Courage in Scrum encourages team members to voice concerns, admit mistakes, and propose improvements. Question 27. Which Agile principle states that the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software? A) Principle #1 of the Agile Manifesto. B) Principle #4 of the Agile Manifesto. C) Principle #7 of the Agile Manifesto. D) Principle #10 of the Agile Manifesto. Answer: A
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Explanation: The first Agile principle emphasizes early and continuous delivery to satisfy the customer. Question 28. During a Sprint Review, the Increment is demonstrated to stakeholders. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of this event? A) Inspect the Increment and adapt the Product Backlog. B) Celebrate the team’s achievements without feedback. C) Gather feedback to influence future Sprints. D) Provide transparency about what was built. Answer: B Explanation: While celebration may occur, the primary purpose is inspection, feedback, and adaptation—not merely celebration without feedback. Question 29. Which of the following statements about the Definition of Done (DoD) is correct? A) It is optional and can be omitted if the team is experienced. B) It should be static and never change throughout the project. C) It is a shared agreement that all Increment items must meet before release. D) It only applies to user‑facing features, not backend services. Answer: C Explanation: The DoD is a common standard that all work must satisfy to be considered complete. Question 30. In the context of Agile testing, what is the main advantage of a “shift‑left” approach? A) Testing is performed after the product is released.
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Question 33. In Scrum, which event is time‑boxed to a maximum of three hours for a one‑month Sprint? A. Sprint Review B. Sprint Planning C. Daily Scrum D. Sprint Retrospective Answer: B Explanation: Sprint Planning is time‑boxed to eight hours for a month‑long Sprint; for a one‑month Sprint, the maximum is eight hours, but the question refers to the maximum time‑box for planning; however, the official Scrum Guide states Sprint Planning is capped at eight hours for a one‑month Sprint. Since the only option that matches the description is Sprint Planning, the answer is B. Question 34. Which activity is NOT part of a typical Sprint Retrospective? A. Identifying what went well. B. Determining improvements for the next Sprint. C. Demonstrating the Increment to stakeholders. D. Agreeing on actionable improvement items. Answer: C Explanation: Demonstrating the Increment is done in the Sprint Review, not the Retrospective. Question 35. Which of the following best describes “Technical Debt” in Agile terms? A. A financial loan taken by the development team. B. The accumulation of shortcuts that reduce future development speed. C. The total number of story points completed in a Sprint.
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D. The amount of time spent on documentation. Answer: B Explanation: Technical debt refers to compromises made that increase future maintenance effort. Question 36. In a CI environment, what is the purpose of a “branch protection rule” that requires a successful build before merging? A. To enforce code style guidelines only. B. To ensure that only code that passes automated tests reaches the main branch. C. To prevent any merges during a Sprint. D. To block developers from committing code. Answer: B Explanation: Branch protection ensures that only code that builds and passes tests can be merged, maintaining integrity of the main line. Question 37. Which of the following is a key benefit of using the “Extract Interface” refactoring technique? A. It reduces the number of classes in the system. B. It allows multiple implementations to share a contract, improving testability. C. It eliminates the need for unit tests. D. It automatically generates documentation. Answer: B Explanation: Extract Interface defines a contract that can be implemented by multiple classes and easily mocked for testing.
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Explanation: Continuous Deployment automates the release of every passing build to production. Question 41. Which Scrum value is most closely associated with “transparent communication of impediments”? A. Openness B. Commitment C. Respect D. Focus Answer: A Explanation: Openness encourages team members to share challenges and impediments candidly. Question 42. What is the primary purpose of a “Spike” in Scrum? A. To increase the velocity of the team. B. To investigate or research a technical approach before committing to implementation. C. To add extra story points to the Sprint. D. To replace the Definition of Done. Answer: B Explanation: A Spike is a time‑boxed investigation to reduce uncertainty. Question 43. Which of the following is an example of a “state‑based” unit test? A. Verifying that a mock logger received a specific message. B. Asserting that a collection contains the expected number of items after an operation. C. Checking that a method calls another service. D. Measuring the execution time of a function.
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Answer: B Explanation: State‑based tests verify the resulting state of the system after execution. Question 44. In a Scrum Team, who is responsible for removing impediments that block the Developers? A. Product Owner B. Scrum Master C. Stakeholders D. Development Manager Answer: B Explanation: The Scrum Master facilitates removal of impediments for the team. Question 45. Which of the following best illustrates the “Single Source of Truth” in a Scrum environment? A. Multiple copies of the Product Backlog stored on each developer’s laptop. B. A single, centrally managed Product Backlog in the Scrum tooling. C. A printed backlog on the office wall. D. Email threads discussing backlog items. Answer: B Explanation: Centralized, authoritative backlog ensures all team members reference the same data. Question 46. Which of the following refactoring techniques would you apply to reduce a “Large Class” smell? A. Replace Conditional with Polymorphism B. Extract Class
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Question 49. During a Sprint, a Developer notices that a piece of code violates SOLID principles. What is the recommended approach? A. Document the violation and ignore it until the next release. B. Raise an impediment to the Scrum Master. C. Refactor the code within the current Sprint, ensuring no impact on the Sprint Goal. D. Defer the fix to a separate technical debt story. Answer: C Explanation: If the violation can be fixed without jeopardizing the Sprint Goal, refactoring aligns with the Scrum value of continuous improvement. Question 50. Which of the following statements about “Pair Programming” is FALSE? A. It can improve code quality through real‑time review. B. It always doubles the amount of time needed to write code. C. It promotes knowledge sharing across the team. D. It can be done in “Driver‑Navigator” style. Answer: B Explanation: While pair programming may initially seem slower, it often reduces defects and rework, leading to overall time savings. Question 51. In Scrum, which artifact provides a forecast of the work the Developers intend to complete during the Sprint? A. Product Backlog B. Increment C. Sprint Backlog D. Definition of Done Answer: C
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Explanation: The Sprint Backlog contains the selected Product Backlog items and the plan for delivering them. Question 52. Which Agile principle emphasizes that the best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self‑organizing teams? A. Continuous delivery of valuable software. B. Sustainable development. C. Simplicity—the art of maximizing the amount of work not done. D. The most efficient and effective method of conveying information is face‑to‑face conversation. Answer: B Explanation: The principle about self‑organizing teams states that the best designs emerge from those teams. Question 53. Which of the following is an example of a “non‑functional” requirement that may be captured as a Definition of Done item? A. “User can create a new account.” B. “The system must respond to a request within 200 ms 95% of the time.” C. “Display a welcome message on login.” D. “Add a new field to the database schema.” Answer: B Explanation: Performance criteria are non‑functional and often part of the DoD. Question 54. Which of the following is a common reason for a Sprint Goal to be changed mid‑Sprint? A. The Product Owner adds new high‑priority items without negotiation.
