Download Beingcert Certified Software Testing Exam and more Exams Technology in PDF only on Docsity!
Exam
Question 1. Which of the following best defines the primary objective of software testing? A) To prove that the software is error‑free B) To demonstrate the presence of defects in the software C) To certify the product for release without further verification D) To eliminate all possible risks associated with the software Answer: B Explanation: The fundamental purpose of testing is to uncover defects; it cannot prove the absence of defects. Question 2. In the context of software quality, what distinguishes Quality Assurance (QA) from Quality Control (QC)? A) QA focuses on process improvement, while QC focuses on product inspection. B) QA is performed only after development, QC is performed during development. C) QA deals with defect detection, QC deals with defect prevention. D) QA and QC are interchangeable terms with no real difference. Answer: A Explanation: QA concentrates on establishing and improving processes; QC involves checking the final product for defects. Question 3. Which principle of testing states that “testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence”? A) Exhaustive testing is impossible B) Early testing (shift left) C) Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence
Exam
D) Defect clustering Answer: C Explanation: This is one of the seven fundamental testing principles, emphasizing that testing can reveal defects but cannot guarantee their absence. Question 4. The “pesticide paradox” in software testing refers to: A) The tendency of test cases to become ineffective when repeated without change. B) The clustering of defects in a small portion of the code. C) The inability to test all possible input combinations. D) The need to test both functional and non‑functional requirements. Answer: A Explanation: Like pests becoming resistant to a pesticide, test suites lose effectiveness if not refreshed with new test cases. Question 5. Which of the following best describes the “absence‑of‑errors fallacy”? A) Assuming that a system with no reported errors is of high quality. B) Believing that exhaustive testing is possible. C) Assuming that a defect will always cause a failure. D) Believing that test automation eliminates all human errors. Answer: A Explanation: The fallacy is that the lack of discovered errors does not guarantee the software meets user needs or quality expectations.
Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Validation answers “Are we building the right product?” by confirming that user requirements are satisfied. Question 9. In the Waterfall model, which testing phase directly follows the “System Design” phase? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: C Explanation: After system design, the complete system is built, and then system testing validates the integrated product. Question 10. The V‑Model emphasizes which of the following relationships? A) Parallel development and testing activities. B) One‑to‑one correspondence between development and testing phases. C) Iterative refinement of requirements. D) Continuous delivery of increments. Answer: B Explanation: The V‑Model maps each development phase to a corresponding testing phase, forming a “V” shape.
Exam
Question 11. Which SDLC model is most associated with risk‑driven prototyping and incremental refinement? A) Waterfall B) Spiral C) V‑Model D) Kanban Answer: B Explanation: The Spiral model incorporates risk analysis and iterative prototyping in each loop. Question 12. In Scrum, the product increment is delivered at the end of each: A) Sprint B) Release cycle C) Milestone D) Iteration Answer: A Explanation: A Scrum sprint is a time‑boxed iteration that results in a potentially shippable product increment. Question 13. Which artefact is used to map test cases to requirements for traceability? A) Test Plan B) Defect Log C) Requirement Traceability Matrix (RTM) D) Test Summary Report
Exam
Question 16. In a test environment, which of the following is essential to ensure consistent test execution? A) Randomized data generation B) Stable hardware and software configuration C) Frequent changes to network topology D) Use of production data without masking Answer: B Explanation: A stable, controlled environment eliminates variability and ensures repeatable test results. Question 17. Which test level focuses on verifying the interaction between integrated components? A) Unit testing B) Integration testing C) System testing D) Acceptance testing Answer: B Explanation: Integration testing examines interfaces and data flow between combined modules. Question 18. In a “big‑bang” integration approach, the testing is performed: A) Incrementally after each component is added. B) After all components are integrated simultaneously. C) Only on the user interface. D) Using mock objects for all external services.
Exam
Answer: B Explanation: Big‑bang integration combines all components at once, then tests the whole system. Question 19. Which type of acceptance testing is performed by the end‑users in a real environment? A) Alpha testing B) Beta testing C) System testing D) Regression testing Answer: B Explanation: Beta testing is conducted by actual users in their own environment to validate real‑world suitability. Question 20. A “static test” differs from a “dynamic test” primarily because: A) It executes the code under test. B) It does not require code execution. C) It validates performance under load. D) It is performed only after release. Answer: B Explanation: Static testing involves reviews, inspections, and analysis without executing the software.
Exam
Answer: B Explanation: By grouping inputs that are expected to behave similarly, a single test case per class provides adequate coverage. Question 24. Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) is most effective when combined with: A) Decision table testing B) State transition testing C) Equivalence partitioning D) Path testing Answer: C Explanation: BVA complements equivalence partitioning by targeting the edges of each partition where defects often appear. Question 25. Which of the following best describes a decision table? A) A matrix mapping inputs to expected outputs for complex business rules. B) A diagram showing state changes over time. C) A hierarchy of test cases derived from use cases. D) A list of all possible code branches. Answer: A Explanation: Decision tables capture combinations of conditions and corresponding actions, useful for rule‑based testing. Question 26. In state transition testing, a “transition” refers to:
Exam
A) A change in the software’s source code. B) Movement from one state to another caused by an event. C. A shift from functional to non‑functional testing. D) A change in test environment configuration. Answer: B Explanation: State transition testing models the system as states and events that cause transitions between them. Question 27. Use case testing primarily focuses on: A) Verifying individual functions in isolation. B) Testing the end‑to‑end flow of user interactions. C. Measuring code coverage metrics. D. Checking database schema constraints. Answer: B Explanation: Use case testing derives test scenarios from user‑level functional flows captured in use cases. Question 28. Statement coverage measures: A) The percentage of executable statements that have been executed at least once. B) The number of decision outcomes evaluated. C. The total number of paths traversed. D. The amount of code that is syntactically correct.
Exam
B. Experience‑based testing. C. Model‑based testing. D. Automated testing. Answer: B Explanation: Testers use intuition and past experience to anticipate where defects may exist. Question 32. Exploratory testing is characterized by: A. Strict adherence to pre‑written test scripts. B. Simultaneous learning, test design, and execution. C. Only using automated tools. D. Testing only after the code is frozen. Answer: B Explanation: Exploratory testing is a dynamic, unscripted approach where testers explore the system while learning. Question 33. Which metric is most appropriate for measuring test progress? A. Defect density B. Test case execution percentage C. Mean time to failure D. Code complexity Answer: B
Exam
Explanation: Test case execution percentage reflects how many planned tests have been run, indicating progress. Question 34. In defect management, a defect with high impact but low urgency should be assigned which priority? A. High priority B. Medium priority C. Low priority D. Critical priority Answer: B Explanation: Priority reflects the order of fixing; high impact but low urgency suggests it should be addressed after more urgent issues. Question 35. Which of the following best describes a “risk‑based testing” approach? A. Testing all modules equally regardless of risk. B. Prioritizing test effort based on the probability and impact of failures. C. Executing tests only after a defect is reported. D. Using only automated test cases. Answer: B Explanation: Risk‑based testing allocates resources to areas with the highest risk of failure. Question 36. When selecting test cases for automation, which criterion is most important? A. Test cases that are executed only once. B. Test cases that are highly repetitive and regression‑prone.
Exam
Question 39. Which Selenium wait type polls the DOM at regular intervals until a condition is met or a timeout occurs? A. Implicit wait B. Thread.sleep() C. Explicit wait (WebDriverWait) D. Fluent wait Answer: D Explanation: Fluent wait is a type of explicit wait that defines polling frequency and can ignore specific exceptions. Question 40. In BDD, the “Given‑When‑Then” syntax is used to: A. Define test data tables. B. Describe user stories in natural language. C. Write automated scripts in Java. D. Configure CI pipelines. Answer: B Explanation: “Given‑When‑Then” structures scenarios in a readable, business‑focused format for BDD. Question 41. Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a hybrid automation framework? A. It eliminates the need for any coding. B. It combines the strengths of multiple framework types to improve reusability and maintainability.
Exam
C. It guarantees 100 % test coverage. D. It requires no test data management. Answer: B Explanation: Hybrid frameworks integrate features of modular, data‑driven, and keyword‑driven designs to leverage their benefits. Question 42. Continuous Integration (CI) primarily aims to: A. Deploy software directly to production without testing. B. Merge code changes frequently and run automated tests to detect integration issues early. C. Replace manual testing entirely. D. Generate documentation automatically. Answer: B Explanation: CI encourages frequent merges and automated builds/tests to catch integration problems promptly. Question 43. In JIRA, a “bug” issue type typically includes which of the following fields? A. Test case ID, Test data, Execution date B. Summary, Description, Severity, Priority, Affects Version C. Build number, Deployment environment, Release notes D. Code coverage, Cyclomatic complexity, Static analysis score Answer: B Explanation: Standard bug fields capture the problem description, impact (severity), urgency (priority), and version information.
Exam
D. Requirement coverage Answer: C Explanation: Compilation time is a development metric, not a testing metric. Question 47. When a defect is logged as “Fixed”, the next logical status in the defect life cycle is: A. Re‑opened B. Verified (or Retested) C. Closed D. Deferred Answer: B Explanation: After a fix, the defect is retested to confirm the resolution before closure. Question 48. In the context of test estimation, the “Three‑point estimation” technique uses which three values? A. Minimum, Maximum, Average B. Optimistic, Pessimistic, Most Likely C. Best case, Worst case, Expected D. Low, Medium, High Answer: B Explanation: The three‑point estimate (PERT) combines optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to calculate an expected effort.
Exam
Question 49. Which of the following statements about “defect clustering” is true? A. Defects are evenly distributed across all modules. B. A small number of modules contain the majority of defects. C. Defects appear only during system testing. D. Defect clustering is unrelated to code complexity. Answer: B Explanation: Defect clustering reflects the Pareto principle—most defects are concentrated in a few high‑risk areas. Question 50. The primary purpose of a “test closure report” is to: A. List all test cases that were not executed. B. Summarize test activities, results, and lessons learned to formally close the test phase. C. Provide detailed source code changes. D. Record the configuration of the test environment. Answer: B Explanation: The closure report documents outcomes, metrics, and recommendations, marking the end of testing. Question 51. In a “top‑down” integration testing approach, which component is tested first? A. The lowest‑level modules (e.g., utilities). B. The highest‑level module (e.g., main controller). C. All modules simultaneously. D. Only the database layer.
