












































Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
The CCNA 2 Switching Routing and Wireless Essentials Version 70 Ultimate Exam is a complete exam preparation resource for Cisco networking students and IT professionals studying switching, routing, and wireless networking technologies. This Ultimate Exam covers VLANs, STP, EtherChannel, inter-VLAN routing, IPv4 and IPv6 routing, WLAN configuration, network security fundamentals, and troubleshooting methods. Through hands-on practice concepts and exam-style questions, learners can strengthen practical networking skills and prepare confidently for Cisco certification assessments.
Typology: Exams
1 / 52
This page cannot be seen from the preview
Don't miss anything!













































Question 1. Which command configures a Cisco switch to obtain a management IP address on VLAN 1? A) ip address dhcp vlan 1 B) interface vlan 1 C) ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255. D) ip default-gateway 192.168.1. Answer: B Explanation: The interface vlan 1 command creates the SVI (Switch Virtual Interface) for VLAN 1, after which an IP address can be assigned with ip address. Question 2. What is the default speed and duplex mode on a Cisco 2960 switch port when it is first powered on? A) 100 Mbps full-duplex B) 1 Gbps full-duplex C) Auto-negotiate (auto speed/duplex) D) 10 Mbps half-duplex Answer: C Explanation: By default, switch ports are set to auto for both speed and duplex, allowing the port to negotiate the highest common settings with the connected device. Question 3. Which of the following provides encrypted remote management of a Cisco switch? A) Telnet B) HTTP C) SSH D) SNMPv Answer: C
Explanation: SSH encrypts the session, whereas Telnet and HTTP transmit credentials in clear text. Question 4. When configuring a router’s IPv6 address on an interface, which command enables the interface to forward IPv6 packets? A) ipv6 enable B) ipv6 unicast-routing C) ipv6 address autoconfig D) ipv6 nd suppress-ra Answer: B Explanation: ipv6 unicast-routing globally enables IPv6 forwarding on the router. Question 5. In a store-and-forward switch, when is a frame forwarded out of a port? A) As soon as the destination MAC is learned B) After the entire frame is received and checked for errors C) When the first 64 bytes are received D) Immediately after the preamble is detected Answer: B Explanation: Store-and-forward switches buffer the whole frame, perform CRC checking, then forward it only if it is error-free. Question 6. Which statement best describes how a MAC address table entry ages out? A) It is removed after 5 seconds of inactivity B) It persists until the switch is rebooted C) It ages out after the default 300 seconds of inactivity D) It never ages out on a multilayer switch Answer: C
Question 10. Which DTP mode forces a switch port to become a trunk regardless of the neighbor’s mode? A) dynamic auto B) dynamic desirable C) nonegotiate D) trunk Answer: D Explanation: The switchport mode trunk command disables DTP negotiation and forces trunking. Question 11. What is the primary advantage of using router-on-a-stick for inter-VLAN routing? A) Eliminates the need for a multilayer switch B) Provides hardware acceleration for routing C) Allows each VLAN to have a separate physical interface D) Reduces broadcast traffic on the router Answer: A Explanation: Router-on-a-stick uses a single physical interface with sub-interfaces, avoiding the need for a multilayer switch. Question 12. Which command creates a Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) for VLAN 10 on a multilayer switch? A) interface vlan 10 B) vlan 10 C) switchport access vlan 10 D) ip routing vlan 10 Answer: A
Explanation: interface vlan 10 creates the SVI, after which an IP address can be assigned. Question 13. In STP, which port type forwards frames toward the root bridge? A) Designated port B) Root port C) Alternate port D) Blocking port Answer: B Explanation: The root port is the best path on a non-root bridge toward the root bridge. Question 14. Which STP version provides faster convergence by using a rapid transition to the forwarding state? A) STP (802.1D) B) PVST+ C) Rapid PVST+ (802.1w) D) MSTP (802.1s) Answer: C Explanation: Rapid PVST+ (802.1w) introduces rapid states, reducing convergence time. Question 15. Which of the following is a valid reason for configuring a port as “shutdown” in a port-security violation? A) To allow unlimited MAC addresses on the port B) To permanently disable the port until a manual reset C) To log the violation but keep the port up D) To move the port to a “protect” mode automatically Answer: B
Answer: A Explanation: ip dhcp snooping vlan 20 enables DHCP snooping for that VLAN. Question 19. In a wireless LAN, which 802.11 standard operates only in the 5 GHz band? A) 802.11b B) 802.11g C) 802.11n D) 802.11a Answer: D Explanation: 802.11a uses the 5 GHz spectrum exclusively. Question 20. Which protocol is used by a lightweight access point to discover a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)? A) LLDP B) CDP C) CAPWAP discovery D) DHCP relay Answer: C Explanation: CAPWAP discovery allows a lightweight AP to locate its WLC. Question 21. Which WPA3 mode provides the highest level of security for enterprise networks? A) WPA3-Personal B) WPA3-Enterprise C) WPA2-Enterprise D) WPA2-Personal Answer: B
Explanation: WPA3-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication and stronger cryptographic suites than WPA3-Personal. Question 22. What is the purpose of the ip helper-address command on a router interface? A) To translate IPv4 addresses to IPv B) To forward broadcast DHCP requests to a DHCP server on another subnet C) To enable NAT overload for DHCP traffic D) To assign a static IP address to a DHCP client Answer: B Explanation: ip helper-address forwards UDP broadcasts (including DHCP) to a specified server. Question 23. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 link-local address format? A) 2001:0db8:85a3::8a2e:0370: B) fe80::1ff:fe23:4567:890a C) ::ffff:192.0.2. D) 2001:db8::/ Answer: B Explanation: Link-local addresses start with fe80::. Question 24. In SLAAC, which IPv6 address component is derived from the interface’s MAC address? A) Network prefix B) Interface identifier (IID) C) Global unicast address D) Subnet ID Answer: B
Answer: B Explanation: hsrp hello-time sets the interval between hello packets. Question 28. Which command on a Cisco router configures a default static route? A) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1. B) ip default-gateway 10.1.1. C) ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1. D) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Null Answer: A Explanation: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 creates a default route. Question 29. Which administrative distance is assigned to OSPF routes by default? A) 0 B) 1 C) 90 D) 110 Answer: C Explanation: OSPF’s default AD is 110 (but Cisco assigns 110; however, the exam expects 110; note: static = 1, connected = 0, OSPF = 110). Question 30. When configuring a floating static route, which parameter must be set higher than the primary route’s AD? A) Metric B) Administrative distance C) Prefix length D) Bandwidth
Answer: B Explanation: A floating static route uses a higher AD so it is used only if the primary route fails. Question 31. Which command verifies the existence of a static route on a Cisco router? A) show ip interface brief B) show ip route static C) show running-config | include route D) show ip protocols Answer: B Explanation: show ip route static displays all static routes in the routing table. Question 32. Which of the following is a common cause of a “ping TTL exceeded” error when troubleshooting static routes? A) Incorrect subnet mask on the source host B) A routing loop caused by misconfigured static routes C) ACL blocking ICMP echo replies D) Duplicate IP address on the network Answer: B Explanation: Routing loops cause packets to be forwarded repeatedly until TTL expires. Question 33. In EtherChannel, which protocol is Cisco-proprietary? A) LACP B) PAgP C) STP D) CDP
Answer: D Explanation: Routers (or L3 switches) separate broadcast domains; switches alone do not. Question 37. Which command disables DTP on a switch port? A) switchport nonegotiate B) switchport mode access C) no switchport mode trunk D) spanning-tree portfast Answer: A Explanation: switchport nonegotiate prevents DTP frames from being sent or processed. Question 38. What is the effect of enabling “portfast” on a trunk port? A) It speeds up STP convergence on the trunk link B) It places the trunk port in forwarding state immediately, which can create loops C) It forces the trunk to become an access port D) It disables BPDU filtering on the port Answer: B Explanation: Portfast should only be used on edge access ports; enabling it on a trunk can cause loops. Question 39. Which IPv6 address type is used for multicast traffic to all routers on a link? A) ff02:: B) ff02:: C) ff05::1: D) ff00::
Answer: B Explanation: ff02::2 is the link-local scope multicast address for all IPv6 routers. Question 40. Which command configures a static IPv6 default route on a Cisco router? A) ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:: B) ipv6 default-gateway 2001:db8:: C) ipv6 route :: 2001:db8:: D) ipv6 unicast-routing ::/0 2001:db8:: Answer: A Explanation: ipv6 route ::/0 creates a default route for IPv6. Question 41. In a DHCPv4 relay scenario, which UDP port is used by the ip helper-address to forward DHCP requests? A) 67 B) 68 C) 53 D) 69 Answer: A Explanation: DHCP server listens on UDP 67; the relay forwards client broadcasts (UDP 67) to the server. Question 42. Which of the following is a valid reason to configure a “summary static route” on a router? A) To replace OSPF with static routing B) To reduce the size of the routing table by aggregating multiple networks C) To provide a default route for all traffic D) To enable load balancing across multiple links
Answer: B Explanation: show spanning-tree provides details about the STP operation and port roles. Question 46. Which STP port state does not forward frames but still learns MAC addresses? A) Listening B) Learning C) Forwarding D) Blocking Answer: B Explanation: In the Learning state, the port learns MAC addresses but does not forward frames. Question 47. Which command changes the priority of a switch to become the STP root bridge for VLAN 10? A) spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 B) spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary C) spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0 D) spanning-tree vlan 10 root secondary Answer: A Explanation: Lower priority values increase the chance of becoming root; 4096 is a common lower value. Question 48. Which of the following best describes the effect of enabling “BPDU guard” on a port? A) It blocks all incoming BPDUs on the port B) It shuts down the port when a BPDU is received, protecting against rogue switches
C) It forces the port into root bridge mode D) It automatically places the port into a trunk Answer: B Explanation: BPDU guard disables the port if it receives a BPDU, protecting edge ports from switches. Question 49. Which command configures a Cisco switch to permit only 2 MAC addresses per port and to shut down the port on violation? A) switchport port-security maximum 2 violation shutdown B) switchport port-security limit 2 action shutdown C) switchport port-security max-mac 2 shutdown D) switchport security mac-limit 2 shutdown Answer: A Explanation: The correct syntax is switchport port-security maximum 2 followed by violation shutdown. Question 50. Which protocol validates DHCP client bindings to prevent rogue DHCP servers? A) DHCP snooping B) DAI C) ARP inspection D) Port security Answer: A Explanation: DHCP snooping builds a trusted database of DHCP bindings, blocking unauthorized servers. Question 51. What does Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) use to validate ARP packets? A) DHCP snooping binding table
A) 2.4 GHz B) 5 GHz C) 900 MHz D) 1.2 GHz Answer: B Explanation: 5 GHz provides higher data rates but has reduced penetration and range compared to 2.4 GHz. Question 55. Which command on a Cisco router enables NAT overload (PAT) for inside source addresses? A) ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 overload B) ip nat outside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 overload C) ip nat inside source static tcp 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 interface Gig0/0 overload D) ip nat pool PAT_POOL 203.0.113.1 203.0.113.10 netmask 255.255.255. overload Answer: A Explanation: The command translates all inside addresses to the IP of the outside interface using PAT. Question 56. Which routing protocol uses the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest-path first (SPF) tree? A) RIP B) OSPF C) EIGRP D) BGP Answer: B Explanation: OSPF employs Dijkstra’s SPF algorithm. Question 57. Which OSPF router type advertises routes only within its own area?
A) Backbone router B) Area 0 router C) ABR (Area Border Router) D) ASBR (Autonomous System Boundary Router) Answer: C Explanation: An ABR connects one area to another and can summarize routes, but it still advertises intra-area routes within its own area. Question 58. Which command displays the OSPF neighbor relationships on a router? A) show ip ospf neighbor B) show ip route ospf C) show ip protocols ospf D) show ospf adjacency Answer: A Explanation: show ip ospf neighbor lists OSPF neighbor states and timers. Question 59. Which metric does OSPF use to determine the best path? A) Hop count B) Bandwidth (cost) C) Delay D) Reliability Answer: B Explanation: OSPF cost is derived from interface bandwidth; lower total cost is preferred. Question 60. Which command configures a router to redistribute static routes into OSPF?